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You are treating a patient with localized osteosarcoma of the distal femur with methotrexate, doxorubicin, and cisplatin (MAP) chemotherapy. At week 10 of treatment, the patient undergoes complete resection of the tumor. Pathology demonstrates 40% necrosis. Which of the following represents the most appropriate further therapy?
- A. Ifosfamide and etoposide (IE)
- B. MAP plus ifosfamide and etoposide (MAPIE)
- C. Gemcitabine docetaxel
- D. MAP
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: MAP. In localized osteosarcoma, the response to preoperative chemotherapy is evaluated based on the percentage of tumor necrosis. A necrosis of 40% is considered a good response. The standard of care after surgery is to continue with the same chemotherapy regimen to complete the course. Continuing with MAP in this case is important to ensure that any remaining cancer cells are effectively treated. Option A (IE) and option B (MAPIE) are not indicated as they are different regimens and not the standard of care for this scenario. Option C (Gemcitabine docetaxel) is also not the appropriate choice as it is not the standard treatment protocol for localized osteosarcoma.
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A 16-year-old patient with a left-side pelvic osteosarcoma is taking extended release oxycodone twice daily as well as immediate release oxycodone for breakthrough pain approximately 2 or 3 times per day. She describes her pain as burning, tingling, and shooting in her left leg. Her pain worsens with hot showers. Her most recent EKG has a QTc of 495. What would be the best strategy to manage her pain?
- A. Switch from long-acting oxycodone to methadone.
- B. Recommend more frequent use of her immediate release oxycodone.
- C. Add amitriptyline daily. Start low and titrate upward on dosage.
- D. Add gabapentin three times daily. Start low and titrate upward on dose.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: The patient's pain is described as burning, tingling, and shooting in her left leg, which suggests neuropathic pain.
Step 2: The pain worsens with hot showers, indicating sensitivity to temperature changes, a common feature of neuropathic pain.
Step 3: Gabapentin is a first-line medication for neuropathic pain, as it stabilizes nerve cells and reduces abnormal pain signaling.
Step 4: Starting low and titrating upward on gabapentin dose helps minimize side effects and optimize pain relief.
Step 5: Methadone (Choice A) is not the best option for neuropathic pain. Increasing immediate release oxycodone (Choice B) may lead to opioid tolerance. Amitriptyline (Choice C) may help neuropathic pain but is not as specific as gabapentin.
Which is not associated with hypersplenism:
- A. splenomegaly
- B. pancytopenia
- C. hyper cellular bone marrow
- D. reversibility by splenectomy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Hypersplenism is characterized by splenomegaly (A), causing sequestration and destruction of blood cells.
2. Pancytopenia (B) results from excessive destruction of blood cells in the enlarged spleen.
3. Hypercellular bone marrow (C) is not directly associated with hypersplenism; it is a compensatory response to increased blood cell destruction.
4. Splenectomy (D) can reverse the effects of hypersplenism by removing the source of blood cell destruction.
Therefore, the correct answer is C as hypercellular bone marrow is a secondary response to hypersplenism, not a direct association.
Which of the following is the most suitable anti malarial drug for pregnant women?
- A. Atovaquone and proguanil
- B. Quinine and doxycycline
- C. Quinine and clindamycin
- D. Primaquine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Quinine and clindamycin. Quinine is recommended for pregnant women due to its safety profile in pregnancy. Clindamycin is often used in combination with quinine to treat malaria during pregnancy.
A: Atovaquone and proguanil are not recommended for pregnant women due to limited safety data.
B: Quinine and doxycycline should be avoided in pregnancy as doxycycline can harm the fetus.
D: Primaquine is not recommended during pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus.
In summary, the combination of quinine and clindamycin is the most suitable anti-malarial drug for pregnant women due to their safety profiles and efficacy in treating malaria without harming the fetus.
In a study to investigate the rates of central line–acquired bacterial infections, it is discovered that patient length of stay (LOS) is not normally distributed but is highly right-skewed. What is the correct relationship between the mean, median, and mode of LOS?
- A. The mean is less than the median but greater than the mode.
- B. The mean is equal to the median and the mode.
- C. The mean is greater than the median and mode.
- D. The mean and median will both be less than the mode.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The mean is greater than the median and mode. In a highly right-skewed distribution, the mean is pulled towards the higher end by the extreme values, making it greater than the median, which is the middle value. The mode is the most frequent value, which is typically lower than the mean in a right-skewed distribution. In summary, the mean is influenced by extreme values, causing it to be greater than both the median and the mode in a highly right-skewed distribution.
A patient who is undergoing consolidation therapy for the treatment of leukemia has been experiencing debilitating fatigue. How can the nurse best meet this patient's needs for physical activity?
- A. Teach the patient about the risks of immobility and the benefits of exercise.
- B. Assist the patient to a chair during awake times, as tolerated.
- C. Collaborate with the physical therapist to arrange for stair exercises.
- D. Teach the patient to perform deep breathing and coughing exercises.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because assisting the patient to a chair during awake times allows for gradual physical activity, promoting mobility without overwhelming the patient. This option supports the patient's need for movement while considering their current level of fatigue.
A is incorrect because educating the patient about the benefits of exercise may not be feasible or appropriate given the patient's current fatigue levels.
C is incorrect as stair exercises may be too strenuous for a patient experiencing debilitating fatigue, potentially leading to further exhaustion and risk of injury.
D is incorrect because deep breathing and coughing exercises primarily focus on respiratory health and may not directly address the patient's need for physical activity to combat fatigue.