Nokea
A nurse is preparing a client's medications. Which of the following actions should the nurse take in following legal practice guidelines? (Select ONE that does not apply.)
- A. Maintain skill competency.
- B. Determine the dosage.
- C. Monitor for adverse effects.
- D. Safeguard medications.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nurses must maintain competency , monitor effects , and safeguard meds ; determining dosage is the prescriber's role.
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An order is written for a patient to receive 1000 mL of normal saline IV over 8 hours. If the IV infusion set is a microdrip set that delivers 60 drops/mL, how many drops per minute should the patient be receiving?
- A. 60 drops/min
- B. 120 drops/min
- C. 240 drops/min
- D. 480 drops/min
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: If a patient were to receive 1000 mL in 8 hours, dividing 1000 by 8 would mean that the patient would receive 125 mL in 1 hour, or 60 minutes. Setting up the equation, 60 drops/mL X = 125 mL/60 min, and cross-multiplying, the answer is 120 drops/min.
Which classification does meperidine (Demerol) fall under?
- A. I
- B. II
- C. III
- D. IV
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Meperidine (Demerol) is a Schedule II drug; it has a high potential for abuse and may lead to severe psychological and physical dependence.
Discharge summaries using information technology have several advantages. They can:
- A. Replace the need for oral instruction because the patient has printed material to read at home
- B. Be filed with the patient's chart to document patient teaching
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: IT discharge summaries document teaching but do not replace oral instructions.
A physician has ordered intramuscular injections of morphine, a narcotic, every 4 hours as needed for pain for a motor vehicle accident victim. The nurse is aware that there is a high abuse potential for this drug, therefore, morphine is categorized as a:
- A. Schedule I drug
- B. Schedule II drug
- C. Schedule III drug
- D. Schedule IV drug
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Narcotics such as morphine are considered schedule II drugs because of the high abuse potential with severe dependence liability. Schedule I drugs have high abuse potential and no accepted medical use. Schedule III drugs have a lesser abuse potential than schedule II drugs and an accepted medical use. Schedule IV drugs have low abuse potential and limited dependence liability.
Niaspan is less likely to cause which side effect that is common to niacin?
- A. Gastrointestinal irritation
- B. Cutaneous flushing
- C. Dehydration
- D. Headaches
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Niaspan's extended-release form reduces flushing compared to immediate-release niacin.