Nokea
GLP-1 agonists:
- A. Directly bind to a receptor in the pancreatic beta cell
- B. Have been approved for monotherapy
- C. Speed gastric emptying to decrease appetite
- D. Can be given orally once daily
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: GLP-1 agonists bind beta-cell receptors to enhance insulin release; they're not monotherapy-approved or oral .
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The nurse is reviewing the history and physical examination of a client who will be receiving asparaginase (Elspar), an antineoplastic agent. The nurse consults with the registered nurse regarding the administration of the medication if which of the following is documented in the client's history?
- A. Pancreatitis
- B. Diabetes mellitus
- C. Myocardial infarction
- D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Asparaginase (Elspar) is contraindicated if hypersensitivity exists, in pancreatitis, or if the client has a history of pancreatitis. The medication impairs pancreatic function and pancreatic function tests should be performed before therapy begins and when a week or more has elapsed between administration of the doses. The client needs to be monitored for signs of pancreatitis, which include nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. The conditions noted in options 2, 3, and 4 are not contraindicated with this medication.
One of the patient in the clinic is being treated with spironolactone. Which statement correctly describes a property of this drug?
- A. Contraindicated in heart failure, especially if severe
- B. Inhibits sodium reabsorption in the proximal tubules
- C. Interferes with aldosterone synthesis
- D. Is generally preferred to a thiazide in most patients with essential hypertension
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Spironolactone blocks aldosterone receptors, not synthesis; correct answer inferred as none fully match.
When prescribing Adderall (amphetamine and dextroamphetamine) to adults with ADHD the nurse practitioner will need to monitor:
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Blood glucose levels
- C. Urine ketone levels
- D. Liver function
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Adderall increases blood pressure, requiring monitoring.
The nurse, assisting with Phase I drug studies, is talking with a woman who asks, Why can't I participate in this study? What would be the nurse's best response?
- A. Drugs pose a greater risk to women of reproductive age.
- B. Drugs are only tested on men because they are stronger.
- C. Women are more prone to adverse effects from medications.
- D. Drugs affect women differently than they affect women.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Phase I drug trials usually involve healthy male volunteers because chemicals may exert an unknown and harmful effect on ova in women which could result in fetal damage when the woman becomes pregnant. Drugs are tested on both men and women, but women must be fully informed of risks and sign a consent stating they understand the potential for birth defects. Women are not more prone to adverse effects of medications. Although some drugs may affect women differently than men, this is a rationale for why drugs need to be tested on women, not an explanation of why women are not included in a phase I study.
Sook has been prescribed gabapentin to treat neuropathic pain and is complaining of feeling depressed and having 'strange' thoughts. The appropriate initial action would be:
- A. Increase her dose
- B. Assess for suicidal ideation
- C. Discontinue the medication immediately
- D. Decrease her dose to half then slowly titrate up the dose
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Gabapentin can cause mood changes; assessing for suicidal ideation is the priority.