Nurse Carlos teaches a community adult class about the common symptoms of tuberculosis. Which of the following should Nurse Carlos include?
- A. weight loss
- B. dyspnea on exertion
- C. increased appetite
- D. mental status changes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nurse Carlos should include weight loss as one of the common symptoms of tuberculosis. Unintentional weight loss is a classic symptom seen in individuals with active tuberculosis infection. This weight loss is often accompanied by other symptoms such as fever, night sweats, and fatigue. It is important for Nurse Carlos to educate the community about this symptom as it can be a key indicator for seeking medical evaluation and treatment for tuberculosis. Dyspnea on exertion, increased appetite, and mental status changes are not typically common symptoms associated with tuberculosis.
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The nurse is admitting a child with rheumatic fever. Which therapeutic management should the nurse expect to implement?
- A. Administering penicillin
- B. Avoiding salicylates (aspirin)
- C. Imposing strict bed rest for 4 to 6 weeks
- D. Administering corticosteroids if chorea develops
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Therapeutic management for rheumatic fever includes administering penicillin to eradicate the streptococcal infection, avoiding salicylates (aspirin) to prevent Reye's syndrome, and imposing strict bed rest for the acute phase to decrease cardiac workload and prevent joint complications. Corticosteroids are used if chorea (involuntary movement disorder) develops to reduce inflammation and control symptoms. Therefore, the nurse should expect to administer corticosteroids if chorea develops in a child with rheumatic fever.
Which intervention is appropriate for the nurse caring for a client in severe pain receiving a continuous I.V. infusion of morphine?
- A. Assisting with a naloxone challenge test before therapy begins
- B. Discontinuing the drug immediately if signs of dependence appear
- C. Changing the administration route to P.O. if the client can tolerate fluids
- D. Obtaining baseline vital signs before administering the first dose
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Obtaining baseline vital signs before administering the first dose is appropriate for the nurse caring for a client in severe pain receiving a continuous I.V. infusion of morphine. Monitoring vital signs, including blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation, is essential to assess the client's response to opioid therapy. Baseline vital signs provide a comparison for evaluating changes in the client's physical status and help identify any adverse effects or complications related to morphine administration. This proactive approach allows the nurse to detect and address any abnormalities promptly, ensuring the client's safety and optimal pain management.
A 25-year old with hepatitis may be anicteric and symptomless. In the early part of the hepatic inflammatory disorder, the most likely symptom/sign is:
- A. dark urine
- B. occult blood in stools
- C. ascites
- D. anorexia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the early part of the hepatic inflammatory disorder, the most likely symptom/sign is anorexia. Anorexia refers to a decreased appetite or lack of interest in food, which is commonly seen in patients with liver diseases such as hepatitis. Anorexia in the setting of liver inflammation indicates a disruption in the normal metabolic processes of the liver. This symptom is often accompanied by general malaise, fatigue, and weight loss. Dark urine (choice A) may occur later in the disease progression due to the buildup of bilirubin in the blood. Occult blood in stools (choice B) may be a sign of gastrointestinal bleeding, which can be a complication of advanced liver disease but is not typically an early symptom. Ascites (choice C) is the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity and is usually a late sign of liver dysfunction.
A healthy 20-day-old male examination reveals a palpable liver margin below the right costal margin; lab findings: white blood count, 18700/mm3; hemoglobin, 8.8 g/dl; blast cells, 10%; the BEST approach for the management is consistent with acute myeloproliferative disorder
- A. intensive chemotherapy
- B. low dose chemotherapy pulses
- C. bone marrow transplantation
- D. close follow up
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Intensive chemotherapy is the standard approach for managing acute myeloproliferative disorders.
Cherry, the mother of an 11-month-old girl, Elizabeth, is in the clinic for her daughter's immunizations. She expresses concern to the nurse that Elizabeth cannot yet walk. The nurse correctly replies that, according to the Denver Developmental Screen, the median age for walking is:
- A. 12 months.
- B. 15 months.
- C. 10 months.
- D. 14 months.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The Denver Developmental Screening Test states that the median age for walking is around 12 months. This means that about half of all typically developing children will begin to walk by this age. It is important to note that there is a wide range of normal development, and not all children will hit these milestones at the same time. If Cherry's 11-month-old daughter, Elizabeth, is not yet walking, it does not necessarily indicate a developmental delay as long as she is meeting other milestones within a reasonable timeframe.