Nokea
What are the risks of untreated gestational hypertension?
- A. Preeclampsia
- B. Placental abruption
- C. Preterm labor
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, All of the above. Untreated gestational hypertension can lead to serious complications such as preeclampsia, characterized by high blood pressure and organ damage, placental abruption which is the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, and preterm labor, resulting in premature birth. Each of these complications poses significant risks to both the mother and the baby, highlighting the importance of managing gestational hypertension. Therefore, all the choices A, B, and C are consequences of untreated gestational hypertension.
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For questions 91 & 92, match the following with the statements in column A by indicating the correct number
- A. Colicky uterus
- B. Constriction ring dystocia
- C. Precipitate labour
- D. Cervical dystocia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Precipitate labor. Precipitate labor refers to a rapid labor and delivery process. It is matched with the statement in column A because it is associated with a sudden and quick progression of labor, leading to a rapid delivery of the baby. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: Colicky uterus - This term is not related to rapid labor but rather refers to uterine contractions that are painful and intermittent.
B: Constriction ring dystocia - This term describes a condition where there is a tight band around the uterus, causing difficulty in the delivery process, which is different from the rapid progression seen in precipitate labor.
D: Cervical dystocia - This term refers to a condition where there are issues with the dilation or effacement of the cervix, not directly related to the speed of labor as in precipitate labor.
Bruised and oedematous appearance of the uterus, associated with placenta abruption, is collectively referred to as
- A. Wernicke’s encephalopathy
- B. Uterine prolapse
- C. Couvelaire uterus
- D. Asherman’s syndrome
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Couvelaire uterus. This condition is characterized by a bruised and edematous appearance of the uterus due to severe placental abruption. The rationale is that a Couvelaire uterus specifically refers to this presentation, while the other choices do not.
A: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological disorder caused by thiamine deficiency.
B: Uterine prolapse is the descent or herniation of the uterus into or beyond the vagina.
D: Asherman's syndrome involves intrauterine adhesions leading to menstrual irregularities.
The main clinical feature in hyperemesis gravidarum is
- A. Persistent vomiting or nausea
- B. Persistent sight-related problems
- C. Persistent diarrhoea and vomiting
- D. Frequency or urgency of micturition
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Persistent vomiting or nausea. Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of morning sickness characterized by persistent vomiting and nausea during pregnancy. This is the main clinical feature due to hormonal changes and increased sensitivity to certain odors. Choice B is incorrect as sight-related problems are not a typical feature of hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice C is incorrect as persistent diarrhea is not a defining feature of this condition. Choice D is incorrect as frequency or urgency of micturition is not a primary symptom of hyperemesis gravidarum.
Janet is a 54-year-old female who is in the ICU following hepatic resection due to metastatic disease. She is expected to move to a general medical floor today. Morning labs are as follows serum bilirubin approximately 2 gdL, albumin 3.1 gdL, and prothrombin time 20 seconds. AST and ALT are 85 and 99 respectively. The appropriate response would be to
- A. Cancel the transfer and keep her in the ICU
- B. Infuse albumin and fresh frozen plasma
- C. Repeat the labs the next day
- D. Prepare for reoperation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prepare for reoperation. Given the patient's elevated AST and ALT levels after hepatic resection, along with abnormal prothrombin time and low albumin, there is concern for liver dysfunction. This indicates a potential complication post-surgery, such as hepatic insufficiency or failure, necessitating reoperation for further evaluation and management. Cancelling the transfer (A) would delay necessary intervention. Infusing albumin and fresh frozen plasma (B) would address only the symptoms but not the underlying cause. Repeating labs the next day (C) would not address the urgency of the situation.
Mechanism of labor in left occipito-posterior position:
- A. Descent, engagement, flexion, internal rotation
- B. Extension, engagement, internal rotation, external rotation
- C. Flexion, descent, external rotation
- D. Descent, engagement, extension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Descent, engagement, flexion, internal rotation. In left occipito-posterior position, the fetus descends into the pelvis, engages in the maternal pelvis, undergoes flexion to fit through the birth canal, and internally rotates to align with the pelvis for delivery.
Choice B (Extension, engagement, internal rotation, external rotation) is incorrect because extension is not typically seen in occipito-posterior positions. Choice C (Flexion, descent, external rotation) is incorrect because external rotation is not part of the mechanism in this position. Choice D (Descent, engagement, extension) is incorrect because extension is not typically seen in this position.