Nokea
There are no other abnormal findings. This suggests that Mr. Thornton
- A. Is having anterior wall ischemia
- B. Is having an anterior wall infarction
- C. Has a history of anterior wall NSTEMI
- D. Has a history of anterior wall STEMI
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the absence of any other abnormal findings suggests that Mr. Thornton is currently experiencing an anterior wall infarction. This is indicated by the localized area of myocardial necrosis due to prolonged ischemia. Option A is incorrect because ischemia would typically present with reversible changes rather than necrosis. Option C is incorrect as NSTEMI would show some abnormal findings. Option D is incorrect as STEMI would show more significant ECG changes and enzyme elevation. In summary, the absence of other abnormalities points towards an acute event like an anterior wall infarction.
You may also like to solve these questions
What are the benefits of ultrasound in monitoring fetal growth?
- A. Detects fetal anomalies
- B. Monitors placental health
- C. Assesses amniotic fluid levels
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Ultrasound in monitoring fetal growth can detect fetal anomalies by visualizing the fetus in real-time. It can also monitor placental health by assessing blood flow and position. Additionally, ultrasound can assess amniotic fluid levels to ensure proper fetal development. Therefore, all the benefits mentioned in choices A, B, and C are valid reasons why ultrasound is essential in monitoring fetal growth.
Which of the following is highly associated with preterm babies?
- A. Social habits
- B. Genetic factors
- C. Multiple gestation
- D. Chronic conditions
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Multiple gestation. Preterm birth is more common in multiple gestation pregnancies due to the increased strain on the mother's uterus and cervix. This can lead to early labor and delivery. Social habits (choice A) and genetic factors (choice B) may play a role in preterm birth but are not highly associated. Chronic conditions (choice D) can also contribute to preterm birth, but multiple gestation is a stronger predictor.
A correct statement about an acute small for gestational age neonate is
- A. Entire body is proportionately reduced for gestational age
- B. Head is disproportionately larger than the rest of the body
- C. The body is disproportionately larger than the baby’s head
- D. The neonate appears plumpy with a scaphoid shaped abdomen
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because an acute small for gestational age neonate will have all body parts proportionately reduced in size compared to a normal gestational age baby. This is due to intrauterine growth restriction. Choice B is incorrect because the head is not disproportionately larger. Choice C is incorrect as it states the body is larger than the head, which is not the case in SGA babies. Choice D is incorrect as SGA babies typically appear thin with a scaphoid abdomen, not plumpy.
The main feature of Hyperemesis gravidarum is
- A. Pallor or cyanosis of mucous membrane
- B. Inability to eat or retain food all through
- C. Weakness because of severe state of shock
- D. Smaller fundal height compared to dates
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy.
Step 2: Inability to eat or retain food all through is a hallmark feature due to excessive vomiting.
Step 3: This leads to dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and weight loss.
Step 4: Pallor, cyanosis, weakness, and smaller fundal height are not specific to hyperemesis gravidarum.
Summary: Choice B is correct as it directly relates to the primary symptom of excessive vomiting in hyperemesis gravidarum, while the other choices are not specific to this condition.
A 42-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after being raped. The AGACNP examines her and realizes that the patients husband is the rapist. The patient does not want to press charges and wants to return home with her husband. The AGACNPs initial action should be to
- A. Report the physical assault to law enforcement
- B. Have the patient sign a release to go home with her husband
- C. Consult psychiatry for a psych hold
- D. Provide counseling to the patient regarding her options M. R. is a 52-year-old female who presents complaining of significant abdominal pain, which she rates as 8 to 9 on a 1 to 10 scale. The pain has been going on for a matter of hours, and she is afraid it won’t go away on its own. She denies any nausea or vomiting, and she cannot remember precisely when her last bowel movement occurred; probably it was a few days ago. She reports that she is ―always‖ constipated. On physical examination, she is tachycardic but otherwise has normal vital signs; her abdomen is tensely rigid, but no point tenderness to palpation is appreciated. The entire abdomen percusses as tympanic—there is no distinct dullness over the upper quadrants. Bowel sounds are present but hypoactive and intermittent. There is rebound tenderness to palpation. The AGACNP suspects:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Provide counseling to the patient regarding her options. The AGACNP's initial action should prioritize the patient's well-being and autonomy. Counseling allows the patient to understand her options, including legal, medical, and emotional support. Reporting to law enforcement (A) without the patient's consent violates her autonomy. Having the patient sign a release to go home with her husband (B) disregards the potential danger and trauma she may face. Consulting psychiatry for a psych hold (C) may not address the immediate emotional and physical needs of the patient.