Nokea
Non-infective mastitis is associated with
- A. Cellulitis
- B. Flat nipples
- C. Bifid nipples
- D. Adenitis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Non-infective mastitis is associated with adenitis because it refers to inflammation of breast tissue without an infection. Adenitis specifically involves inflammation of the lymph nodes, which can be a common cause of non-infective mastitis. Cellulitis (A) is an infection of the skin and tissues beneath the skin, not specific to mastitis. Flat (B) and bifid (C) nipples are anatomical variations that do not directly relate to the inflammation of breast tissue.
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Placenta praevia is also referred to as unavoidable haemorrhage because
- A. Bleeding results as the segment prepares for true labour
- B. Bleeding results from pathological processes of the placenta
- C. Bleeding always occurs after a gestation of 37 complete weeks
- D. Of the high morbidity and mortality rate to the mother and neonate
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because placenta praevia can lead to life-threatening bleeding during labor due to the placenta partially or completely covering the cervix. This condition poses a high risk of morbidity and mortality to both the mother and the baby.
A: Incorrect. Bleeding in placenta praevia is not related to the segment preparing for labor.
B: Incorrect. While bleeding is due to placental issues, it is specifically due to the placenta's abnormal positioning, not a pathological process.
C: Incorrect. Bleeding can occur before 37 weeks in cases of placenta praevia, and the timing of bleeding is not linked to gestational age.
He has had 1 L of NSS infused by emergency medical services. His vital signs reveal a pulse of 128 bpm and a blood pressure of 8860 mm Hg. With respect to his hypotension, the AGACNP recognizes that
- A. Vasopressors are contraindicated in traumatic head injury
- B. Hypotension doubles the risk of mortality from traumatic head injury
- C. His blood pressure is likely a physiologic response to traumatic head injury
- D. Stabilizing the head injury is more important that identifying the cause of hypotension
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: His blood pressure is likely a physiologic response to traumatic head injury.
Rationale:
1. Physiologic response: Traumatic head injury can lead to autonomic dysregulation, causing increased sympathetic activity and elevated blood pressure to maintain cerebral perfusion.
2. Compensation mechanism: The body may increase blood pressure in response to hypotension to ensure vital organs receive adequate blood flow.
3. Treatment consideration: Understanding that elevated blood pressure can be a compensatory mechanism helps guide appropriate management strategies for traumatic head injury patients.
Summary:
A: Vasopressors can be used in traumatic head injury depending on the specific situation, and they are not always contraindicated.
B: While hypotension can worsen outcomes in traumatic head injury, this choice overstates the risk without providing context.
D: Identifying the cause of hypotension is crucial in managing traumatic head injury patients and should not be disregarded in favor of stabilizing the head injury.
There are no other abnormal findings. This suggests that Mr. Thornton
- A. Is having anterior wall ischemia
- B. Is having an anterior wall infarction
- C. Has a history of anterior wall NSTEMI
- D. Has a history of anterior wall STEMI
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the absence of any other abnormal findings suggests that Mr. Thornton is currently experiencing an anterior wall infarction. This is indicated by the localized area of myocardial necrosis due to prolonged ischemia. Option A is incorrect because ischemia would typically present with reversible changes rather than necrosis. Option C is incorrect as NSTEMI would show some abnormal findings. Option D is incorrect as STEMI would show more significant ECG changes and enzyme elevation. In summary, the absence of other abnormalities points towards an acute event like an anterior wall infarction.
Ms. Kweke’s specific management until delivery (obstructed labour):
- A. Immediate caesarean section
- B. Observation with pain relief
- C. Manual repositioning of fetus
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immediate caesarean section. In obstructed labor, prompt delivery is crucial to prevent harm to both the mother and the baby. A caesarean section is the most effective and timely intervention to safely deliver the baby and avoid complications such as fetal distress, maternal infection, and uterine rupture. Observation with pain relief (B) may delay necessary intervention, and manual repositioning of the fetus (C) is not sufficient in cases of obstructed labor. Choice D is incorrect because not all options are appropriate in this specific scenario.
A non-pharmacological measure of pain relief in labour includes
- A. Entonox
- B. Cyclothane
- C. Homeopathy
- D. Diamorphine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Homeopathy. Homeopathy involves using highly diluted substances to stimulate the body's natural healing processes. In labor, homeopathy can help manage pain and support relaxation. Entonox (A) and Diamorphine (D) are pharmacological measures, while Cyclothane (B) is not a recognized pain relief option in labor. Homeopathy aligns with non-pharmacological approaches, making it the most suitable choice for pain relief in labor.