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What is the purpose of progesterone in supporting early pregnancy?
- A. To increase fetal growth rates.
- B. To maintain the uterine lining and prevent menstrual shedding.
- C. To stimulate ovulation during the menstrual cycle.
- D. To regulate the release of other reproductive hormones.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because progesterone plays a crucial role in maintaining the uterine lining to support implantation and prevent menstrual shedding. Progesterone prepares the uterus for the potential implantation of a fertilized egg by thickening the endometrium. If fertilization occurs, progesterone continues to support the pregnancy by ensuring the uterine lining remains intact to provide a nurturing environment for the developing embryo. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because progesterone's main function in early pregnancy is not to increase fetal growth rates, stimulate ovulation, or regulate the release of other reproductive hormones.
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During ovulation induction, a patient asks why hormone levels are monitored so frequently. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. To predict embryo quality before fertilization.
- B. To ensure hormone levels stay within safe and effective ranges for egg maturation.
- C. To confirm the patient is pregnant before the cycle ends.
- D. To determine if the uterine lining is ready for implantation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Monitoring hormone levels during ovulation induction is essential to ensure that the hormones stay within safe and effective ranges for successful egg maturation. By closely monitoring hormone levels, healthcare providers can adjust medication dosages as needed to optimize the chances of successful ovulation. This helps to minimize the risk of overstimulation or understimulation of the ovaries, which can impact the quality of the eggs produced.
A: Predicting embryo quality before fertilization is not the primary purpose of monitoring hormone levels during ovulation induction.
C: Confirming pregnancy before the cycle ends is not the purpose of hormone level monitoring during ovulation induction.
D: Determining if the uterine lining is ready for implantation is important, but this is typically assessed through other methods such as ultrasound rather than hormone level monitoring.
What is the role of pelvic ultrasound in infertility evaluation?
- A. To evaluate ovarian reserve directly.
- B. To visualize uterine and ovarian structures.
- C. To measure hormone levels in the bloodstream.
- D. To identify genetic abnormalities in embryos.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, as pelvic ultrasound allows visualization of uterine and ovarian structures. This is essential in assessing conditions like fibroids, polyps, ovarian cysts, and structural abnormalities that may affect fertility. Ovarian reserve evaluation (A) involves separate tests like AMH levels. Hormone levels (C) are typically measured through blood tests. Genetic abnormalities in embryos (D) are usually identified through preimplantation genetic testing, not pelvic ultrasound.
A couple undergoing fertility treatments asks about male factor infertility. What should the nurse discuss?
- A. Male infertility is always caused by low testosterone levels.
- B. Sperm count, motility, and morphology are critical factors in male fertility.
- C. Male infertility does not affect the success of fertility treatments.
- D. Male factor infertility cannot be diagnosed with a semen analysis.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because sperm count, motility, and morphology are indeed critical factors in male fertility. Sperm count refers to the number of sperm present, motility is the ability of sperm to move effectively, and morphology relates to the shape and structure of sperm. These factors directly impact a man's fertility potential.
Choice A is incorrect because male infertility can have various causes, not solely low testosterone levels. Choice C is incorrect as male infertility can impact the success of fertility treatments. Choice D is incorrect because semen analysis is a key diagnostic tool for identifying male factor infertility.
The nurse is instructing a client on taking her basal body temperature. What is the primary purpose of this test?
- A. To determine if the client's cervical mucus contains enough estrogen to support sperm motility.
- B. To identify if the client's temperature rises 1 to 5 days after midcycle.
- C. To assess whether surgical correction of uterine pathology is needed.
- D. To identify if the client is experiencing blockage of the uterine cavity and fallopian tubes.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is B because basal body temperature rises 1 to 5 days after midcycle, indicating ovulation. This helps determine the client's most fertile period for conception. Choice A is incorrect as basal body temperature does not assess cervical mucus. Choice C is incorrect as it does not evaluate uterine pathology. Choice D is incorrect as basal body temperature does not assess blockage of uterine cavity or fallopian tubes.
A man has inherited the gene for familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP), an autosomal dominant disease. He and his wife wish to have a baby. Which of the following would provide the couple with the highest probability of conceiving a healthy child?
- A. Amniocentesis.
- B. Chorionic villus sampling.
- C. Pre-implantation genetic diagnosis.
- D. Gamete intrafallopian transfer.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pre-implantation genetic diagnosis allows screening of embryos before implantation.