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Assessment of a woman in labor reveals cervical dilation of 3 cm, cervical effacement of 30%, and contractions occurring every 7 to 8 minutes, lasting about 40 seconds. The nurse determines that this client is in:
- A. latent phase of the first stage.
- B. active phase of the first stage.
- C. pelvic phase of the second stage.
- D. early phase of the third stage.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client's cervical dilation, effacement, and contraction pattern indicate that she is in the latent phase of the first stage of labor. This phase is characterized by cervical dilation of 0 to 3 cm, effacement of 0% to 40%, and contractions every 5 to 10 minutes lasting 30 to 40 seconds. The active phase of the first stage occurs with cervical dilation of 4 to 7 cm, effacement of 40% to 80%, and contractions every 2 to 5 minutes lasting 45 to 60 seconds. The perineal phase of the second stage and early phase of the third stage have different characteristics, making them incorrect choices.
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A Roman Catholic couple is infertile. Their health care practitioner advises them that their best chance of getting pregnant is via in vitro fertilization with a mixture of the man's sperm and donor sperm. Which of the following issues, related to this procedure, should the nurse realize may be in conflict with the couple's religious beliefs? Select all that apply.
- A. The man will ejaculate by masturbation into a specially designed condom.
- B. The woman may become pregnant with donor sperm.
- C. Fertilization is occurring in the artificial environment of the laboratory.
- D. More embryos will be created than will be used to inseminate the woman.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: These aspects of IVF conflict with Roman Catholic teachings on procreation and the sanctity of life.
Cervical mucus at ovulation should be:
- A. Thin and slippery, and should stretch to at least 6 cm.
- B. Cloudy with a mild odor and should stretch to at least 6 cm.
- C. Thick, clear, and of a large amount.
- D. Thin and tinged with a small amount of blood.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cervical mucus at ovulation should be thin and slippery, and should stretch to at least 6 cm. This type of mucus indicates the fertile window and the best time for conception.
The nurse is providing education to a pregnant woman whose genetic testing confirms her fetus has Down syndrome. The nurse understands that Down syndrome is an example of which abnormality?
- A. Chromosomal translocation
- B. Abnormality of chromosomal number
- C. Multifactorial monosomy inheritance
- D. Autosomal-recessive inheritance
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Abnormality of chromosomal number. Down syndrome is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21, leading to trisomy 21. This results in characteristic physical features and intellectual disability. Chromosomal translocation (A) involves the swapping of genetic material between chromosomes. Multifactorial monosomy inheritance (C) refers to a combination of genetic and environmental factors leading to the loss of a chromosome. Autosomal-recessive inheritance (D) requires two copies of a mutated gene to be present for the disorder to manifest, which is not the case in Down syndrome.
A 44-year-old woman presents with an unexpected pregnancy. She asks the nurse, 'Is my baby going to have a birth defect? My third cousin has Down syndrome.' What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Tell the patient she is at risk for gene mutation because a birth defect in a distant relative places the woman at increased risk.
- B. Discuss the potential risk for intrauterine growth retardation due to the mother's advanced age.
- C. Discuss the patient's situation with the physician to ask for a referral to high-risk obstetrics.
- D. Discuss the potential risk for a chromosomal abnormality based on the patient's advanced age.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: The correct answer is D because advanced maternal age (AMA), generally defined as 35 years or older, is a well-known risk factor for chromosomal abnormalities, such as Down syndrome.
Step 2: Down syndrome is more common in babies born to mothers over the age of 35 due to the increased likelihood of errors in cell division during egg development.
Step 3: Given the patient's age of 44, she falls into the category of AMA and is at an increased risk for chromosomal abnormalities in her baby.
Step 4: Option A is incorrect as the risk is not solely based on gene mutation but rather on the increased chance of chromosomal abnormalities due to age.
Step 5: Option B is incorrect as it focuses on intrauterine growth retardation, which is not directly related to the patient's query about birth defects.
Step 6: Option C is incorrect as a referral to high-risk obstetrics may not be necessary solely based on the patient's
Which of the following medical conditions could possibly affect a woman's fertility status?
- A. Past medical history of asthma during childhood that is presently under control with the use of an inhaler.
- B. Recently diagnosed with polycystic ovarian syndrome.
- C. Past surgical history of removal of external polyps on labial tissue.
- D. History of frequent sinus headaches that is seasonal in nature treated with over-the-counter medication.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, recently diagnosed with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). PCOS is a common hormonal disorder that can affect a woman's fertility by causing irregular ovulation or no ovulation. This can make it difficult to conceive.
- Choice A (asthma with inhaler): Asthma does not directly impact fertility.
- Choice C (polyps removal): External polyps removal does not typically affect fertility.
- Choice D (sinus headaches): Seasonal sinus headaches do not directly impact fertility.
In summary, PCOS can affect fertility due to hormonal imbalances affecting ovulation, making it the most relevant medical condition in this context.