Nokea
What is the primary purpose of a semen analysis in an infertility evaluation?
- A. To assess sperm count, motility, and morphology.
- B. To determine the presence of infections in the reproductive tract.
- C. To measure hormone levels affecting sperm production.
- D. To identify potential genetic anomalies in sperm.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The primary purpose of a semen analysis in an infertility evaluation is to assess sperm count, motility, and morphology. This is crucial as these factors directly impact male fertility. Sperm count indicates the quantity of sperm present, motility relates to their ability to move effectively towards the egg, and morphology assesses the shape and structure of sperm, which can affect their ability to fertilize an egg. Evaluating these parameters helps identify potential issues causing infertility. Other choices are incorrect as semen analysis primarily focuses on assessing sperm quality, not infections, hormone levels, or genetic anomalies in sperm.
You may also like to solve these questions
Lori, who is 32 years old, is taking clomiphene citrate to induce ovulation and presents to the office for a vaginal ultrasound. As the nurse is walking Lori to ultrasound, Lori mentions that over the past 12 hours she has experienced abdominal bloating, nausea, and weight gain of 5 pounds. The nurse recognizes these signs and symptoms to be associated with what condition?
- A. Ovulation
- B. Premenstrual syndrome
- C. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
- D. Failed ovulation induction
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS). OHSS is a potential complication of ovulation induction with medications like clomiphene citrate. The symptoms Lori is experiencing (abdominal bloating, nausea, and weight gain) are classic signs of moderate OHSS. The mechanism involves excessive response to the ovulation induction medication leading to enlarged ovaries and fluid accumulation in the abdomen. It is crucial to monitor patients on ovulation induction therapy for signs of OHSS to prevent severe complications.
Choice A: Ovulation - This is incorrect because the symptoms described are not typical of ovulation itself.
Choice B: Premenstrual syndrome - This is incorrect because the symptoms are not specific to premenstrual syndrome and are more indicative of a complication related to medication.
Choice D: Failed ovulation induction - This is incorrect because the symptoms suggest a response to the medication rather than a failure of ovulation.
The nurse is counseling a couple about infertility. Which piece of assessment data may affect the woman's ability to become pregnant?
- A. The woman exercises three times a week for 1 hour.
- B. The couple each consumes a glass of wine each night.
- C. The couple has a sauna in their backyard.
- D. The male partner works on heavy machinery.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Having a sauna in the backyard may affect the woman's ability to become pregnant due to the potential negative impact of excessive heat on sperm production and ovulation. Saunas can raise body temperature, which can be harmful to sperm and reduce fertility.
Explanation of other choices:
A: Regular exercise is generally beneficial for fertility and overall health, so this is unlikely to significantly impact the woman's ability to become pregnant.
B: Consuming a glass of wine each night in moderation is not likely to have a significant impact on fertility unless it leads to excessive alcohol consumption.
D: Working on heavy machinery may pose risks to male fertility due to potential exposure to harmful chemicals or radiation, but this choice doesn't directly impact the woman's ability to become pregnant.
What is the purpose of progesterone in supporting early pregnancy?
- A. To increase fetal growth rates.
- B. To maintain the uterine lining and prevent menstrual shedding.
- C. To stimulate ovulation during the menstrual cycle.
- D. To regulate the release of other reproductive hormones.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because progesterone plays a crucial role in maintaining the uterine lining to support implantation and prevent menstrual shedding. Progesterone prepares the uterus for the potential implantation of a fertilized egg by thickening the endometrium. If fertilization occurs, progesterone continues to support the pregnancy by ensuring the uterine lining remains intact to provide a nurturing environment for the developing embryo. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because progesterone's main function in early pregnancy is not to increase fetal growth rates, stimulate ovulation, or regulate the release of other reproductive hormones.
A patient undergoing ovarian stimulation is concerned about ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS). What should the nurse explain?
- A. OHSS is a mild side effect and rarely requires medical attention.
- B. OHSS can cause severe symptoms like abdominal pain and requires monitoring.
- C. OHSS is only a concern for women over 40.
- D. OHSS cannot occur with modern fertility medications.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because OHSS can indeed cause severe symptoms like abdominal pain and fluid accumulation in the abdomen or chest, which may require medical attention and monitoring. OHSS is a potential complication of ovarian stimulation, particularly in women undergoing fertility treatments. It is crucial for the nurse to explain the seriousness of OHSS symptoms and the importance of close monitoring to the patient.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because OHSS is not a mild side effect, it can occur in women of all ages, and it can still happen with modern fertility medications. It is important to provide accurate information to the patient to ensure their understanding and safety during the treatment process.
A patient asks about the effectiveness of tracking ovulation using basal body temperature (BBT). What is the nurse's best response?
- A. BBT tracking is the most accurate method for predicting ovulation.
- B. BBT is used to confirm ovulation after it occurs.
- C. BBT tracking is only effective in women under 30 years old.
- D. BBT tracking eliminates the need for other fertility tests.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: BBT is used to confirm ovulation after it occurs. BBT tracking helps confirm ovulation by observing a slight increase in temperature after ovulation. It does not predict ovulation accurately. Choice A is incorrect because BBT is not the most accurate method for predicting ovulation. Choice C is incorrect as BBT tracking can be effective in women of all ages. Choice D is incorrect as BBT tracking is just one method and may not replace other fertility tests.