Nokea
The nurse is instructing a client on taking her basal body temperature. What is the primary purpose of this test?
- A. To determine if the client's cervical mucus contains enough estrogen to support sperm motility.
- B. To identify if the client's temperature rises 1 to 5 days after midcycle.
- C. To assess whether surgical correction of uterine pathology is needed.
- D. To identify if the client is experiencing blockage of the uterine cavity and fallopian tubes.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is B because basal body temperature rises 1 to 5 days after midcycle, indicating ovulation. This helps determine the client's most fertile period for conception. Choice A is incorrect as basal body temperature does not assess cervical mucus. Choice C is incorrect as it does not evaluate uterine pathology. Choice D is incorrect as basal body temperature does not assess blockage of uterine cavity or fallopian tubes.
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A Roman Catholic couple is infertile. Their health care practitioner advises them that their best chance of getting pregnant is via in vitro fertilization with a mixture of the man's sperm and donor sperm. Which of the following issues, related to this procedure, should the nurse realize may be in conflict with the couple's religious beliefs? Select all that apply.
- A. The man will ejaculate by masturbation into a specially designed condom.
- B. The woman may become pregnant with donor sperm.
- C. Fertilization is occurring in the artificial environment of the laboratory.
- D. More embryos will be created than will be used to inseminate the woman.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: These aspects of IVF conflict with Roman Catholic teachings on procreation and the sanctity of life.
An infertile man is being treated with Viagra (sildenafil citrate) for erectile dysfunction (ED). Which of the following is a contraindication for this medication?
- A. Preexisting diagnosis of herpes simplex 2.
- B. Nitroglycerin ingestion for angina pectoris.
- C. Retinal damage from type I diabetes mellitus.
- D. Postsurgical care for resection of the prostate.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Viagra interacts dangerously with nitroglycerin, potentially causing severe hypotension.
Assessment of a woman in labor reveals cervical dilation of 3 cm, cervical effacement of 30%, and contractions occurring every 7 to 8 minutes, lasting about 40 seconds. The nurse determines that this client is in:
- A. latent phase of the first stage.
- B. active phase of the first stage.
- C. pelvic phase of the second stage.
- D. early phase of the third stage.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client's cervical dilation, effacement, and contraction pattern indicate that she is in the latent phase of the first stage of labor. This phase is characterized by cervical dilation of 0 to 3 cm, effacement of 0% to 40%, and contractions every 5 to 10 minutes lasting 30 to 40 seconds. The active phase of the first stage occurs with cervical dilation of 4 to 7 cm, effacement of 40% to 80%, and contractions every 2 to 5 minutes lasting 45 to 60 seconds. The perineal phase of the second stage and early phase of the third stage have different characteristics, making them incorrect choices.
The nurse is educating a patient about the role of luteal phase support in fertility treatments. What should be emphasized?
- A. It involves increasing estrogen levels to support ovulation.
- B. It requires progesterone supplementation to maintain uterine lining integrity.
- C. It eliminates the need for hormonal monitoring during treatments.
- D. It helps prevent the LH surge during ovulation induction.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because luteal phase support is crucial in fertility treatments to maintain the uterine lining for potential embryo implantation. Progesterone supplementation is necessary to support this phase, as it ensures a hospitable environment for the embryo. Option A is incorrect because luteal phase support primarily focuses on progesterone, not estrogen. Option C is incorrect as hormonal monitoring is still essential during fertility treatments. Option D is incorrect because luteal phase support does not prevent the LH surge, which is necessary for ovulation.
A client is to undergo a postcoital test for infertility. The nurse should include which of the following statements in the client's preprocedure counseling?
- A. You will have the test the day after your menstruation ends.
- B. You will have a dye put into your vein that will show up on x-ray.
- C. You should refrain from having intercourse for the four days immediately prior to the test.
- D. You should experience the same sensations you feel when your doctor does your Pap test.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The postcoital test involves assessing cervical mucus after intercourse, similar to a Pap test.