Nokea
A couple who has not achieved a successful pregnancy is scheduled to meet with a fertility specialist. Which simple evaluation is usually the first test to be performed?
- A. Semen analysis
- B. Testicular biopsy
- C. Endometrial biopsy
- D. Hysterosalpingography
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Semen analysis. This is the first test performed because it helps assess male fertility by evaluating sperm count, motility, and morphology. It is a non-invasive and cost-effective test that can provide valuable insights into the couple's fertility issues. Testicular biopsy (B) is an invasive procedure and typically not the initial test. Endometrial biopsy (C) evaluates the uterine lining and is usually performed later in the evaluation process. Hysterosalpingography (D) is a test to assess the fallopian tubes and uterus in females, which is also not typically the first test performed when evaluating infertility in a couple.
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A patient undergoing ovarian stimulation asks about the purpose of frequent ultrasounds. What should the nurse explain?
- A. Ultrasounds monitor embryo development after transfer.
- B. They assess the growth and development of ovarian follicles.
- C. They confirm ovulation has occurred naturally.
- D. Ultrasounds are used to visualize uterine contractions.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because frequent ultrasounds are used to monitor the growth and development of ovarian follicles during ovarian stimulation. This is essential to ensure proper timing for ovulation induction or egg retrieval. Ultrasounds do not monitor embryo development after transfer (choice A), confirm natural ovulation (choice C), or visualize uterine contractions (choice D) in this context.
What is the function of the highlighted region on the drawing below?
- A. It produces a fluid that nourishes the sperm.
- B. It secretes a fluid that neutralizes the acidic environment of the vagina.
- C. It is the reservoir where sperm mature.
- D. It contracts during ejaculation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The highlighted region likely refers to the bulbospongiosus muscle or related structures that contract during ejaculation to expel semen.
A couple undergoing IVF asks about the risks associated with the procedure. Which response by the nurse is appropriate?
- A. There are no risks associated with IVF as it is a routine procedure.
- B. Multiple pregnancies and ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome are possible risks.
- C. IVF guarantees pregnancy within one cycle.
- D. IVF has no impact on the health of future pregnancies.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because multiple pregnancies and ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome are indeed possible risks associated with IVF. Multiple pregnancies can lead to complications for both the mother and babies, while ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome can cause abdominal pain, bloating, and in severe cases, fluid buildup in the abdomen and chest.
Choice A is incorrect as all medical procedures, including IVF, carry risks. Choice C is incorrect as IVF does not guarantee pregnancy in one cycle, success rates vary. Choice D is incorrect as studies have shown that IVF can have implications on future pregnancies such as increased risk of preterm birth and low birth weight.
Cervical mucus at ovulation should be:
- A. Thin and slippery, and should stretch to at least 6 cm.
- B. Cloudy with a mild odor and should stretch to at least 6 cm.
- C. Thick, clear, and of a large amount.
- D. Thin and tinged with a small amount of blood.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cervical mucus at ovulation should be thin and slippery, and should stretch to at least 6 cm. This type of mucus indicates the fertile window and the best time for conception.
What is the significance of luteal phase deficiency in infertility?
- A. It results from inadequate estrogen levels during ovulation.
- B. It is caused by insufficient progesterone to maintain the uterine lining.
- C. It occurs only in women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS).
- D. It leads to the release of immature eggs.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because luteal phase deficiency is caused by insufficient progesterone to maintain the uterine lining, which is crucial for implantation of a fertilized egg. This deficiency can lead to difficulty in sustaining a pregnancy.
A is incorrect because estrogen levels are more related to follicular phase than luteal phase.
C is incorrect because luteal phase deficiency can occur in women without PCOS.
D is incorrect because immature eggs are more related to ovulation issues rather than luteal phase deficiency.