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A couple undergoing IVF asks about the risk of multiple pregnancies. What should the nurse discuss?
- A. Transferring multiple embryos increases the risk of multiples, which can lead to complications.
- B. Single embryo transfers always result in twins or higher multiples.
- C. Multiple pregnancies have no impact on maternal or fetal health.
- D. The number of embryos transferred does not affect pregnancy outcomes.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. Transferring multiple embryos increases the chance of multiple pregnancies, which can lead to complications such as preterm birth and low birth weight.
2. This is an important consideration for the couple undergoing IVF to understand the potential risks involved.
3. Single embryo transfers reduce the risk of multiples and associated complications.
4. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they provide inaccurate information that contradicts the known risks associated with multiple pregnancies.
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What is the primary purpose of cryopreservation in fertility treatments?
- A. To store embryos, eggs, or sperm for future use.
- B. To improve the success rates of natural conception.
- C. To reduce the need for fertility medications.
- D. To eliminate genetic abnormalities in embryos.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because cryopreservation allows embryos, eggs, or sperm to be stored for future use, preserving fertility options for patients undergoing fertility treatments. This helps in cases like preserving fertility before undergoing treatments that may affect fertility or for those who wish to postpone childbearing.
Choice B is incorrect because cryopreservation doesn't directly improve natural conception rates. Choice C is incorrect as cryopreservation doesn't reduce the need for fertility medications but rather provides a method to store reproductive materials. Choice D is incorrect as cryopreservation doesn't eliminate genetic abnormalities in embryos; it preserves them for potential future use.
A patient undergoing ovarian stimulation asks about the purpose of frequent ultrasounds. What should the nurse explain?
- A. Ultrasounds monitor embryo development after transfer.
- B. They assess the growth and development of ovarian follicles.
- C. They confirm ovulation has occurred naturally.
- D. Ultrasounds are used to visualize uterine contractions.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because frequent ultrasounds are used to monitor the growth and development of ovarian follicles during ovarian stimulation. This is essential to ensure proper timing for ovulation induction or egg retrieval. Ultrasounds do not monitor embryo development after transfer (choice A), confirm natural ovulation (choice C), or visualize uterine contractions (choice D) in this context.
What is the function of estrogen in preparing the uterine lining during the menstrual cycle?
- A. To prevent ovulation from occurring prematurely.
- B. To thicken and vascularize the endometrium for potential implantation.
- C. To stimulate the release of eggs from the ovaries.
- D. To increase progesterone production directly.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Estrogen plays a crucial role in thickening and vascularizing the endometrium to prepare for potential implantation of a fertilized egg. Estrogen does not prevent ovulation (choice A), as it actually promotes ovulation. It also does not directly stimulate egg release (choice C), as that is primarily controlled by luteinizing hormone. Estrogen indirectly influences progesterone production by triggering ovulation, but it does not directly increase progesterone production (choice D).
What is the primary purpose of a semen analysis in an infertility evaluation?
- A. To assess sperm count, motility, and morphology.
- B. To determine the presence of infections in the reproductive tract.
- C. To measure hormone levels affecting sperm production.
- D. To identify potential genetic anomalies in sperm.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The primary purpose of a semen analysis in an infertility evaluation is to assess sperm count, motility, and morphology. This is crucial as these factors directly impact male fertility. Sperm count indicates the quantity of sperm present, motility relates to their ability to move effectively towards the egg, and morphology assesses the shape and structure of sperm, which can affect their ability to fertilize an egg. Evaluating these parameters helps identify potential issues causing infertility. Other choices are incorrect as semen analysis primarily focuses on assessing sperm quality, not infections, hormone levels, or genetic anomalies in sperm.
Cervical mucus at ovulation should be:
- A. Thin and slippery, and should stretch to at least 6 cm.
- B. Cloudy with a mild odor and should stretch to at least 6 cm.
- C. Thick, clear, and of a large amount.
- D. Thin and tinged with a small amount of blood.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cervical mucus at ovulation should be thin and slippery, and should stretch to at least 6 cm. This type of mucus indicates the fertile window and the best time for conception.