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A 23 year old pregnant woman has UTI and presents to the ER with fever, * frequency and urgency. Which of the following antibiotics can cause potential harm to her fetus?
- A. Nitrrfurantoin
- B. Amoxicillin
- C. Gentamycin
- D. Cephalexin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nitrofurantoin. Nitrofurantoin is contraindicated in the third trimester of pregnancy due to potential risk of hemolytic anemia in the fetus. It can also cross the placenta and reach the fetal bloodstream. Amoxicillin (B) and Cephalexin (D) are safe for use in pregnancy. Gentamycin (C) is generally not recommended during pregnancy due to potential risk of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity but is not specifically harmful to the fetus.
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A 22-year-old woman is being seen at the clinic for problems with vulvar pain, dysuria, and fever. On physical examination, the nurse notices clusters of small, shallow vesicles with surrounding erythema on the labia. Inguinal lymphadenopathy is present. The most likely cause of these lesions is:
- A. Pediculosis pubis.
- B. Contact dermatitis.
- C. HPV.
- D. Herpes simplex virus type 2.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Herpes simplex virus type 2. The presence of small, shallow vesicles with surrounding erythema on the labia, along with symptoms of vulvar pain, dysuria, and fever, are classic signs of genital herpes caused by HSV-2. The inguinal lymphadenopathy further supports the diagnosis. Herpes simplex virus is known for causing painful vesicular lesions in the genital area.
Choice A, Pediculosis pubis, is incorrect as it presents with itching and nits (eggs) attached to the hair shafts, not vesicles. Choice B, Contact dermatitis, typically presents with red, itchy, and inflamed skin due to an allergic reaction. Choice C, HPV, does not typically present with vesicles but rather with warts or abnormal cell changes on the skin or mucous membranes.
The staff educator is giving a class for a group of biopsy 12 hours ago. The presence of what assessment nurses new to the renal unit. The educator is discussing finding should prompt the nurse to notify the physician?
- A. Scant hematuria
- B. Renal colic
- C. A 64-year-old patient with chronic glomerulonephritis
- D. Temperature 100.2F orally
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Renal colic is a symptom of possible kidney stones or obstruction, which can lead to severe pain and require immediate medical attention.
Step 2: Scant hematuria may be common after a biopsy and does not necessarily indicate an urgent issue.
Step 3: Chronic glomerulonephritis in a 64-year-old patient is a chronic condition that may not require immediate physician notification.
Step 4: A temperature of 100.2F orally is slightly elevated but not a critical finding that would warrant immediate physician notification.
Summary:
Renal colic is the correct answer as it indicates a potential urgent issue requiring immediate physician notification. Scant hematuria, chronic glomerulonephritis, and a slightly elevated temperature are not as concerning in this context.
Thiazide diuretics may produce an increase in blood levels of uric acid and:
- A. Potassium
- B. BUN
- C. Urea
- D. Glucose
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics can lead to hyperglycemia by reducing insulin sensitivity. This can result in increased blood glucose levels. Thiazides also elevate uric acid levels by reducing its excretion. Therefore, the correct answer is D (Glucose).
Incorrect choices:
A (Potassium) - Thiazides typically cause hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia.
B (BUN) and C (Urea) - Thiazides may cause a slight increase in BUN and serum creatinine levels due to reduced kidney function, but not as significantly as glucose levels.
The nurse is reviewing the changes that occur with menopause. Which changes are associated with menopause?
- A. Uterine and ovarian atrophy, along with a thinning of the vaginal epithelium
- B. Ovarian atrophy, increased vaginal secretions, and increasing clitoral size
- C. Cervical hypertrophy, ovarian atrophy, and increased acidity of vaginal secretions
- D. Vaginal mucosa fragility, increased acidity of vaginal secretions, and uterine hypertrophy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Answer A is correct because during menopause, there is uterine and ovarian atrophy due to decreased estrogen levels, leading to a thinning of the vaginal epithelium. This is a common physiological change associated with menopause.
Summary of other choices:
B: Incorrect - Increased vaginal secretions and clitoral size do not typically occur with menopause.
C: Incorrect - Cervical hypertrophy and increased acidity of vaginal secretions are not common changes seen with menopause.
D: Incorrect - Vaginal mucosa fragility and uterine hypertrophy are not typical changes associated with menopause.
A patient with cancer of the bladder has just returned
- A. to the unit from the PACU after surgery to create an ileal conduit. The nurse is monitoring the patients urine output hourly and notifies the physician when the hourly output
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because after surgery to create an ileal conduit for bladder cancer, monitoring urine output is crucial to assess kidney function and ensure proper drainage. Hourly monitoring helps to detect any complications early. Choice B is incorrect as it does not provide any relevant information. Choice C is incorrect because monitoring urine output is essential postoperatively. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the immediate postoperative care needs of a patient with an ileal conduit.