Nokea
"Red man syndrome "has been associated with rapid intravenous injection of * which of the following antibiotic?
- A. Vancomycin
- B. Clindamycin
- C. Cefoperazone
- D. Piperacillin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vancomycin. Red man syndrome is a hypersensitivity reaction caused by rapid infusion of vancomycin. Vancomycin infusion releases histamine, leading to flushing, rash, and hypotension. Clindamycin (B), Cefoperazone (C), and Piperacillin (D) are not associated with red man syndrome. Clindamycin can cause pseudomembranous colitis, Cefoperazone can cause bleeding disorders, and Piperacillin can cause hypersensitivity reactions, but not red man syndrome.
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The drug of choice for treatment and secondary prophylaxis against * cryptococcal meningitis among AIDS patients is:
- A. Amphotericin B
- B. Flucytosine
- C. Fluconazole
- D. Ketoconazole
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fluconazole. Fluconazole is the drug of choice for treating and preventing *cryptococcal meningitis in AIDS patients due to its excellent CNS penetration and efficacy. It is preferred over Amphotericin B due to its better safety profile and tolerability. Flucytosine is not used as monotherapy and is often combined with other antifungals. Ketoconazole is not recommended for cryptococcal meningitis due to poor CNS penetration.
Where are the glomeruli and Bowman’s capsules found?
- A. Renal pelvis
- B. Ureter
- C. Renal cortex
- D. Renal column
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The glomeruli and Bowman's capsules are found in the renal cortex. The renal cortex is the outer layer of the kidney where the initial stages of urine formation occur. Glomeruli are clusters of capillaries responsible for filtering blood, while Bowman's capsules surround the glomeruli and collect the filtrate. The renal pelvis (A) is the innermost part of the kidney where urine collects before entering the ureter (B). Renal columns (D) are extensions of the renal cortex that project into the renal medulla. Therefore, the correct answer is C as it accurately locates the structures involved in urine filtration.
A 55-year-old man is experiencing severe pain of sudden onset in the scrotal area. It is somewhat relieved by elevation. On examination the nurse notices an enlarged, red scrotum that is very tender to palpation. Distinguishing the epididymis from the testis is difficult, and the scrotal skin is thick and edematous. This description is consistent with which of these?
- A. Varicocele.
- B. Epididymitis.
- C. Spermatocele.
- D. Testicular torsion.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Epididymitis. The key features that point towards epididymitis in this case include sudden onset severe scrotal pain, tenderness in the scrotal area, difficulty in distinguishing the epididymis from the testis, and thick, edematous scrotal skin. Epididymitis is inflammation of the epididymis typically caused by a bacterial infection. The pain is often relieved by elevation due to reduced pressure. Varicocele (A) is a painless swelling of the veins in the scrotum. Spermatocele (C) is a benign cyst containing sperm that is usually painless. Testicular torsion (D) presents with sudden, severe testicular pain but does not typically involve difficulty in differentiating between the epididymis and testis or edematous scrotal skin.
The first step in urine production
- A. is called reabsorption.
- B. moves water and solutes from the renal tubules into the peritubular capillaries.
- C. is called secretion.
- D. occurs as water and solutes move from the glomerulus to the glomerular capsul
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the first step in urine production occurs as water and solutes move from the glomerulus to the glomerular capsule during the process of filtration. This initial step involves the passive movement of water and small solutes through the filtration membrane in the glomerulus. Reabsorption (choice A) occurs later in the process when useful substances are reclaimed from the filtrate. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the process of reabsorption, not the initial step. Choice C is also incorrect as secretion is the process of actively transporting substances from the blood into the renal tubules, not the first step in urine production.
When the nurse is performing a genital examination on a male patient, which action is correct?
- A. Auscultating for the presence of a bruit over the scrotum
- B. Palpating for the vertical chain of lymph nodes along the groin, inferior to the inguinal ligament
- C. Palpating the inguinal canal only if a bulge is present in the inguinal region during inspection
- D. Having the patient shift his weight onto the left (unexamine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Palpating for the vertical chain of lymph nodes along the groin, inferior to the inguinal ligament. This is the correct action during a male genital examination as it helps assess for any abnormalities or signs of infection in the lymphatic system. Palpating the lymph nodes allows the nurse to identify any swelling, tenderness, or enlargement which could indicate underlying health issues. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: Auscultating for a bruit over the scrotum is not a standard practice during a genital examination and is not relevant to assessing male genital health.
C: Palpating the inguinal canal only if a bulge is present is incorrect as palpating the inguinal canal should be done regardless of the presence of a bulge to check for hernias.
D: Having the patient shift his weight is not a standard procedure during a genital examination and is not relevant to assessing male genital health.