Ketoacidosis is most related to:
- A. adrenocortical insufficiency.
- B. Cushing syndrome.
- C. excess fatty acid catabolism.
- D. hyperglycemia.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ketoacidosis is most related to excess fatty acid catabolism. During this process, the body breaks down fatty acids into ketones, leading to an accumulation of ketones in the blood and causing metabolic acidosis. Adrenocortical insufficiency (A) is related to cortisol deficiency, not ketoacidosis. Cushing syndrome (B) is associated with excess cortisol production, not ketoacidosis. Hyperglycemia (D) is high blood sugar levels and is not directly related to the mechanism of ketoacidosis.
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Which of the following stimulates the release of parathyroid hormone?
- A. TSH from the posterior pituitary gland
- B. high levels of calcium in the blood
- C. calcitonin from the anterior pituitary gland
- D. low levels of calcium in the blood
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: low levels of calcium in the blood. Parathyroid hormone is released in response to low blood calcium levels to help increase calcium levels by promoting its release from bones and enhancing its absorption in the intestines. This response helps maintain calcium homeostasis. TSH from the posterior pituitary gland (choice A) is not related to parathyroid hormone release. High levels of calcium in the blood (choice B) would not stimulate parathyroid hormone release as it is released in response to low calcium levels. Calcitonin from the anterior pituitary gland (choice C) actually works in opposition to parathyroid hormone by promoting calcium deposition in bones and decreasing blood calcium levels.
Narcolepsy is treated with:
- A. Amphetamine
- B. Adrenaline
- C. Isoprenaline
- D. Salbutamol
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Amphetamine. Amphetamine is a central nervous system stimulant that helps manage narcolepsy symptoms by promoting wakefulness. It increases levels of neurotransmitters like dopamine and norepinephrine, enhancing alertness. Adrenaline (B), Isoprenaline (C), and Salbutamol (D) are not typically used to treat narcolepsy as they do not directly target the underlying cause of excessive daytime sleepiness. Adrenaline and Isoprenaline are more commonly used for acute situations like anaphylaxis or cardiac arrest. Salbutamol is a bronchodilator used for conditions like asthma.
Which statement explains why elements in the same group of the Periodic Table have similar chemical properties?
- A. They have different numbers of protons.
- B. They have the same number of neutrons.
- C. They have the same number of electron shells.
- D. They have the same number of outer-shell electrons.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
1. Elements in the same group have similar outer electron configurations.
2. Outer-shell electrons determine chemical properties.
3. Having the same number of outer-shell electrons leads to similar chemical behaviors.
4. This is due to similar valence electron interactions in chemical reactions.
Summary:
A: Incorrect. Protons do not determine chemical properties in the same group.
B: Incorrect. Neutrons do not affect chemical properties in the same group.
C: Incorrect. Having the same number of electron shells does not guarantee similar chemical properties.
The endocrine gland responsible for the body's circadian rhythm is the:
- A. Thymus gland.
- B. Pineal gland.
- C. Parathyroid gland.
- D. Pituitary gland.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pineal gland. The pineal gland produces melatonin, a hormone that regulates the body's circadian rhythm, including sleep-wake cycles. This gland is sensitive to light and darkness, influencing the body's internal clock.
A: Thymus gland is responsible for immune function, not circadian rhythm.
C: Parathyroid gland regulates calcium levels in the body, not circadian rhythm.
D: Pituitary gland controls various other hormones but not specifically circadian rhythm.
A man has been told that he is not synthesizing enough follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and for this reason he may be unable to father a child. Choose the correct statement to explain this problem.
- A. FSH stimulates estrogen secretion by ovarian cells; therefore it is not synthesized by males.
- B. The physician is wronga hormone made in the adenohypophysis could not influence fertility.
- C. FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes.
- D. The man must be producing progesterone, which inhibits the synthesis of FSH.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) is essential for sperm production in males.
Step 2: FSH is produced in the anterior pituitary gland.
Step 3: In males, FSH stimulates the Sertoli cells in the testes to support sperm production.
Step 4: Therefore, if a man is not synthesizing enough FSH, it can lead to reduced sperm production and fertility issues.
Summary:
A: Incorrect - FSH is synthesized by males in the anterior pituitary gland, not just females for estrogen secretion.
B: Incorrect - Hormones produced in the adenohypophysis, like FSH, play a crucial role in fertility.
D: Incorrect - Progesterone does not inhibit the synthesis of FSH; it is involved in the female reproductive system, not male fertility.