After a 26-yr-old patient has been treated for pelvic inflammatory disease, the nurse will plan to teach about the
- A. use of hormone therapy (HT).
- B. potential complication of infertility.
- C. irregularities in the menstrual cycle
- D. changes in secondary sex characteristics.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B - potential complication of infertility. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) can lead to scarring and damage to the reproductive organs, increasing the risk of infertility. Teaching about this potential complication is crucial for the patient's understanding of the long-term consequences of PID. Option A (use of hormone therapy) is not directly related to PID treatment. Option C (irregularities in the menstrual cycle) may occur but is not the primary concern post-PID treatment. Option D (changes in secondary sex characteristics) is not a common complication of PID. Therefore, option B is the most appropriate choice for teaching post-PID treatment.
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When a male is castrated before puberty, he becomes:
- A. Female
- B. Cretin
- C. Eunuch
- D. Potent
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Eunuch. When a male is castrated before puberty, he becomes a eunuch because castration removes the testes, leading to a lack of testosterone production and loss of male secondary sexual characteristics. This results in a eunuch having a more neutral appearance and lacking the ability to reproduce.
A: Choosing "Female" is incorrect because castration does not change the individual's genetic sex.
B: Selecting "Cretin" is incorrect as cretinism is a condition caused by severe thyroid hormone deficiency, not related to castration.
D: Opting for "Potent" is incorrect as castration leads to the loss of reproductive ability, making the individual infertile.
A male client is having trouble with erections and comes to the clinic to be seen by the doctor. The doctor diagnoses the client with erectile dysfunction. The nurse provides education regarding the disorder and teaches the client that erectile dysfunction can be caused by which of the following?
- A. Obsessive compulsive disorder
- B. Complications of STIs
- C. Side effects of drug therapy
- D. Spinal stenosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Drug side effects are a common cause of erectile dysfunction.
The _____ is the space between the labia minor.
- A. vulva
- B. vestibule
- C. vaginal orifice
- D. pudendal cleft
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: vestibule. The vestibule is the space between the labia minora, housing the openings of the urethra and vagina. It is a specific anatomical term that describes this precise area. The other choices, A: vulva refers to the external female genitalia as a whole, C: vaginal orifice specifically denotes the opening of the vagina, and D: pudendal cleft is a term not commonly used in anatomy to describe this specific space. Therefore, B is the correct answer as it accurately describes the anatomical structure in question.
About the Fallopian tubes we can state the following:
- A. are funnel-shaped, with edges flared towards the uterus;
- B. the medial extremity displays flares;
- C. it is linked to the uterus through the uterine ostium;
- D. the lateral extremity opens in the abdominal cavity;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because Fallopian tubes are indeed funnel-shaped, with edges flared towards the uterus. This shape helps capture the released egg from the ovary and guide it towards the uterus for potential fertilization. The other choices are incorrect because the medial extremity does not display flares (B), the Fallopian tube is not directly linked to the uterus through the uterine ostium (C), and the lateral extremity does not open in the abdominal cavity (D). Therefore, choice A is the most accurate description of the Fallopian tubes based on their anatomy and function.
During pregnancy, the uterine smooth muscle is quiescent. During the 9th month of gestation the uterine muscle becomes progressively more excitable. What factors contribute to the increase in excitability?
- A. Placental estrogen synthesis rises to high rates
- B. Progesterone synthesis by the placenta decreases
- C. Uterine blood flow reaches its highest rate
- D. Prostaglandin E2 synthesis by the placenta decreases
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Progesterone synthesis by the placenta decreases. Progesterone maintains uterine quiescence during pregnancy by inhibiting uterine contractions. As progesterone levels decline towards the end of pregnancy, the uterine muscle becomes more excitable. Placental estrogen synthesis (Choice A) does not directly affect uterine excitability. Uterine blood flow (Choice C) is not a direct factor in uterine muscle excitability. Prostaglandin E2 (Choice D) actually increases towards the end of pregnancy, contributing to uterine contractions rather than decreasing excitability.