Nokea
A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum calcium
- B. Serum potassium
- C. Serum sodium
- D. Serum glucose
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent potential complications related to high potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, close monitoring of serum potassium is essential for clients taking spironolactone. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly impact serum calcium, sodium, or glucose levels significantly. While these values may be monitored for other reasons in a client with heart failure, they are not the primary focus of monitoring when spironolactone is prescribed.
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A client admitted with coronary artery disease (CAD) reports dyspnea at rest. What intervention should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Providing a walker to aid in ambulation
- B. Elevating the head of the bed to at least 45 degrees
- C. Performing continuous monitoring of oxygen saturation
- D. Placing an oxygen cannula at the bedside for use if needed
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) experiencing dyspnea at rest, the priority intervention should be to elevate the head of the bed to at least 45 degrees. This position helps reduce the work of breathing, optimizes lung expansion, and can alleviate symptoms of dyspnea by improving oxygenation and ventilation. Providing a walker for ambulation, monitoring oxygen saturation, and having an oxygen cannula at the bedside are important interventions but not the priority when the client is experiencing dyspnea at rest. Elevating the head of the bed is crucial to improve respiratory function and should be prioritized in this situation.
Phase I oxidative-reductive processes of drug metabolism require certain nutritional elements. Which of the following would reduce or inhibit this process?
- A. Protein malnutrition
- B. Iron-deficiency anemia
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because phase I metabolism, involving cytochrome P450 enzymes, relies on protein for enzyme synthesis; malnutrition impairs this, reducing metabolism. Choice B is incorrect as iron deficiency affects oxygen transport, not directly phase I processes. Choice C is wrong since only protein malnutrition, not iron deficiency, is directly relevant. Choice D is incorrect because protein malnutrition does impact metabolism.
Signs of tolerance include:
- A. Needing higher doses for the same effect
- B. Reduced side effects over time
- C. Increased sensitivity to the drug
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because tolerance is defined by needing more drug for the same effect due to body adaptation, per pharmacokinetic principles. Choice B is incorrect as reduced side effects may occur but aren't the definition. Choice C is wrong because sensitivity decreases, not increases. Choice D is incorrect since only A fits.
When assessing a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor regularly?
- A. Albumin
- B. Calcium
- C. Glucose
- D. Alkaline phosphatase
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most important laboratory value to monitor regularly in clients receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is glucose. TPN solutions contain high concentrations of glucose, which can lead to hyperglycemia. Monitoring glucose levels is crucial to detect and prevent hyperglycemia, a common complication associated with TPN administration. Albumin (Choice A) levels are not typically affected by TPN administration. Calcium (Choice B) and alkaline phosphatase (Choice D) are not directly impacted by TPN and are not the primary values to monitor in TPN therapy.
The NP chooses to give cephalexin every 8 hours based on knowledge of the drug's:
- A. Propensity to go to the target receptor
- B. Biological half-life
- C. Pharmacodynamics
- D. Safety and side effects
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is correct because dosing cephalexin every 8 hours aligns with its biological half-life, the time it takes for half the drug to be eliminated, ensuring steady therapeutic levels. Choice A is incorrect as ‘propensity to target receptor' isn't a standard pharmacokinetic term for dosing decisions. Choice C is wrong because pharmacodynamics (drug effects) informs efficacy, not timing. Choice D is incorrect since safety and side effects influence drug choice, not specifically the 8-hour interval.