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A patient with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propylthiouracil (PTU). What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. Increase thyroid hormone production
- B. Suppress thyroid hormone production
- C. Enhance iodine absorption
- D. Stimulate the thyroid gland
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Suppress thyroid hormone production. PTU is an antithyroid medication used to inhibit the synthesis of thyroid hormones, effectively suppressing their production. This helps to manage hyperthyroidism by reducing excessive levels of thyroid hormones in the body. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as PTU does not aim to increase hormone production, enhance iodine absorption, or stimulate the thyroid gland. Understanding the mechanism of action of PTU is crucial in recognizing its primary purpose in treating hyperthyroidism.
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Which signs or symptoms are characteristic of an adult client diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome?
- A. Husky voice and complaints of hoarseness.
- B. Warm, soft, moist, salmon-colored skin.
- C. Visible swelling of the neck, with no pain.
- D. Central-type obesity, with thin extremities.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because central-type obesity with thin extremities is a classic characteristic of Cushing's syndrome due to excess cortisol. This pattern of weight distribution is caused by cortisol's impact on fat metabolism and distribution. A is incorrect because a husky voice and hoarseness are not typical symptoms of Cushing's syndrome. B is incorrect as warm, soft, moist, salmon-colored skin is not a common finding in Cushing's syndrome. C is incorrect because visible swelling of the neck without pain is not a typical sign of Cushing's syndrome.
A client with heart failure is receiving intravenous furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is having the desired effect?
- A. Decreased peripheral edema.
- B. Elevated blood pressure.
- C. Increased heart rate.
- D. Decreased urine output.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased peripheral edema. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps to remove excess fluid from the body, which can reduce peripheral edema in patients with heart failure. This indicates that the medication is effectively reducing fluid overload in the body. Elevated blood pressure (choice B) would not be an expected outcome of furosemide use. Increased heart rate (choice C) is not a direct effect of furosemide and can indicate worsening heart failure. Decreased urine output (choice D) would be an adverse effect of furosemide and would indicate the medication is not working as intended.
While assessing a 70-year-old female client with Alzheimer's disease, the nurse notes deep inflamed cracks at the corners of her mouth. What intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?
- A. Apply a moisturizing cream to the affected areas.
- B. Encourage the client to consume foods rich in vitamin B.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider for further evaluation.
- D. Ensure that the client gets adequate B vitamins in foods or supplements.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because deep inflamed cracks at the corners of the mouth can be a sign of vitamin B deficiency, specifically B2 (riboflavin) or B3 (niacin). Ensuring the client gets adequate B vitamins through foods or supplements can help address the deficiency and improve the condition. Option A is incorrect as simply applying a moisturizing cream does not address the underlying cause. Option B is not the best choice because while vitamin B-rich foods are beneficial, they may not be sufficient to correct a deficiency. Option C is not the immediate priority unless there are other concerning symptoms present.
A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Take your pulse before each dose and hold the medication if your pulse is below 60 beats per minute.
- B. Increase your intake of foods high in potassium.
- C. Take the medication with a high-fiber meal to enhance absorption.
- D. Skip a dose if you feel dizzy or lightheaded.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. Digoxin is a medication that can cause bradycardia as a side effect.
2. Instructing the client to take their pulse before each dose is crucial to monitor for bradycardia.
3. Holding the medication if the pulse is below 60 beats per minute helps prevent potential adverse effects.
4. This instruction ensures the client's safety and adherence to the prescribed regimen.
Summary:
- Choice B is incorrect because increasing potassium intake can lead to hyperkalemia when taking digoxin.
- Choice C is incorrect as taking digoxin with a high-fiber meal may affect absorption negatively.
- Choice D is incorrect because skipping a dose based on dizziness or lightheadedness may lead to suboptimal treatment outcomes.
A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with increasing shortness of breath. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Barrel-shaped chest.
- B. Use of accessory muscles to breathe.
- C. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
- D. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oxygen saturation of 88%. In COPD patients, low oxygen saturation indicates inadequate gas exchange and potential respiratory distress. Oxygen saturation below 90% requires immediate intervention to prevent hypoxemia. A: Barrel-shaped chest is a common finding in COPD due to hyperinflation, but it is not a critical indicator of acute exacerbation. B: Use of accessory muscles suggests increased work of breathing but may not be as urgent as low oxygen saturation. D: Respiratory rate is within normal range, so it is less concerning than the low oxygen saturation.