When should the charge nurse intervene based on the observed behavior?
- A. Two staff members are overheard talking about a cure for AIDS outside a client's room.
- B. A hospital transporter is reading a client's history and physical while waiting for an elevator.
- C. A UAP tells a client, 'It's hard to quit drinking but Alcoholics Anonymous helped me.'
- D. Two visitors are discussing a hospitalized client's history of drug abuse in the visitor's lounge.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it violates patient confidentiality. Reading a client's history and physical in a public area breaches the client's privacy rights. The other choices do not directly compromise patient confidentiality. A involves discussing a cure for AIDS, which is not a breach of confidentiality. C involves sharing personal experiences with the client, and D involves discussing a client's history of drug abuse in a visitor's lounge, which may not be overheard by the client or staff directly involved in the client's care.
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A patient with severe pain is prescribed morphine sulfate. What is the most important side effect for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Hypertension
- C. Respiratory depression
- D. Increased urine output
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory depression. Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic that can suppress the respiratory drive, leading to respiratory depression, which can be life-threatening. Monitoring respiratory status is crucial to prevent complications.
Incorrect choices:
A: Diarrhea - While constipation is a common side effect of opioid use, diarrhea is not a significant concern compared to respiratory depression.
B: Hypertension - Morphine can cause hypotension rather than hypertension, so monitoring blood pressure for hypertension is not the priority.
D: Increased urine output - Morphine can actually cause urinary retention, so increased urine output is not a key side effect to monitor.
For a patient with asthma, what is the primary purpose of prescribing salmeterol?
- A. Relieve acute bronchospasm
- B. Prevent asthma attacks
- C. Suppress cough
- D. Thin respiratory secretions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of prescribing salmeterol is to prevent asthma attacks. Salmeterol is a long-acting beta agonist that helps to relax the muscles of the airways over an extended period, reducing the likelihood of bronchospasms and asthma exacerbations. It is not used for relieving acute bronchospasm (choice A), suppressing cough (choice C), or thinning respiratory secretions (choice D) as these are not the main therapeutic effects of salmeterol in asthma management.
The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?
- A. Prevents indigestion associated with the ingestion of spicy foods.
- B. Binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents absorption.
- C. Promotes stomach emptying and prevents gastric reflux.
- D. Buffers hydrochloric acid and prevents gastric erosion.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sevelamer (RenaGel) is a phosphate binder used in ESRD to bind with phosphorus in foods, preventing its absorption in the gastrointestinal tract. This is important as ESRD patients often have high levels of phosphorus in their blood, which can lead to complications like cardiovascular disease. Taking RenaGel with meals ensures that it binds with phosphorus in the food, reducing its absorption.
Choice A is incorrect as RenaGel does not prevent indigestion associated with spicy foods. Choice C is incorrect as RenaGel does not promote stomach emptying or prevent gastric reflux. Choice D is incorrect as RenaGel does not buffer hydrochloric acid or prevent gastric erosion.
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed ipratropium. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Reduce inflammation
- B. Relieve bronchospasm
- C. Suppress cough
- D. Thin respiratory secretions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Relieve bronchospasm. Ipratropium is an anticholinergic bronchodilator that works by relaxing the muscles in the airways, leading to bronchodilation and improved airflow. This helps to relieve bronchospasm, a common symptom in COPD. Choice A is incorrect because ipratropium does not have significant anti-inflammatory effects. Choice C is incorrect as ipratropium does not directly suppress cough. Choice D is incorrect as ipratropium does not specifically target respiratory secretions.
A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. What is an important teaching point for the nurse to provide?
- A. Take folic acid supplements as prescribed.
- B. Avoid alcohol completely.
- C. Expect to see immediate results.
- D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Take folic acid supplements as prescribed. Methotrexate can lead to folic acid deficiency, causing side effects. Supplementing with folic acid can help manage these side effects. It is crucial for the nurse to emphasize the importance of taking folic acid as prescribed to prevent adverse effects.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: Avoid alcohol completely - While alcohol should be limited or avoided due to potential liver toxicity with methotrexate, complete avoidance may not be necessary for all patients.
C: Expect to see immediate results - Methotrexate takes time to work, and patients should not expect immediate results. Patience is necessary.
D: Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day - There is no specific guideline to limit fluid intake with methotrexate. Adequate hydration is important for overall health.