A client is being discharged with a new prescription for enoxaparin (Lovenox). Which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Administer the injection in your thigh.
- B. Do not expel the air bubble from the syringe before injection.
- C. Massage the injection site after administration.
- D. Alternate the injection site between the arms.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because expelling the air bubble from the syringe before injection helps ensure accurate dosage delivery and prevents air from being injected into the patient. Administering the injection in the thigh (A) is incorrect as enoxaparin is typically given in the abdomen. Massaging the injection site (C) can cause bruising or hematoma formation. Alternating injection sites between arms (D) is not relevant as enoxaparin is usually given in the abdomen.
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An outcome for treatment of peripheral vascular disease is, 'The client will have decreased venous congestion.' What client behavior would indicate to the nurse that this outcome has been met?
- A. Avoids prolonged sitting or standing.
- B. Avoids trauma and irritation to skin.
- C. Wears protective shoes.
- D. Quits smoking.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because avoiding prolonged sitting or standing helps improve venous return by preventing blood from pooling in the legs, reducing venous congestion. This behavior promotes circulation and decreases the risk of complications. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address venous congestion or circulation improvement, making them incorrect options. Avoiding trauma and irritation to the skin (B) is important for skin integrity but not specifically for venous congestion. Wearing protective shoes (C) is related to preventing foot injuries but does not directly impact venous congestion. Quitting smoking (D) is beneficial for overall health but does not directly target venous congestion.
What is the primary action of digoxin when prescribed to a patient with heart failure?
- A. Increase heart rate
- B. Decrease cardiac output
- C. Strengthen cardiac contractions
- D. Lower blood pressure
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The primary action of digoxin in heart failure is to strengthen cardiac contractions. Digoxin inhibits the sodium-potassium pump, leading to an increase in intracellular calcium levels, which enhances the force of myocardial contractions. This helps improve cardiac output and symptoms of heart failure.
Explanation:
A: Incorrect - Digoxin does not increase heart rate, it mainly affects the strength of contractions.
B: Incorrect - Digoxin does not decrease cardiac output; it actually helps improve it by enhancing contractility.
D: Incorrect - Digoxin may have a slight effect on lowering blood pressure, but its primary action in heart failure is to strengthen cardiac contractions, not lower blood pressure.
What is the primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
- A. No need for regular INR monitoring
- B. Lower risk of bleeding
- C. Fewer dietary restrictions
- D. Longer half-life
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of DVT is the absence of regular INR monitoring required with rivaroxaban. This is because rivaroxaban is a direct oral anticoagulant with more predictable pharmacokinetics, eliminating the need for monitoring. Regular INR monitoring is necessary with warfarin to ensure the drug is within the therapeutic range, which can be burdensome for patients and healthcare providers. The other choices are incorrect as they do not directly address the primary advantage of rivaroxaban over warfarin for this specific patient population.
A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with severe abdominal pain. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Bowel sounds active in all quadrants.
- B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg.
- C. Rigid, board-like abdomen.
- D. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rigid, board-like abdomen. This finding suggests peritonitis, a serious complication of peptic ulcer disease, requiring immediate medical intervention. A: Active bowel sounds are expected. B: Blood pressure is within normal range. D: Heart rate is slightly elevated but not a critical finding. In summary, a rigid abdomen indicates peritonitis and requires urgent attention compared to the other choices.
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed tiotropium. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. Reduce mucus production
- B. Relieve bronchospasm
- C. Suppress cough
- D. Thin respiratory secretions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Relieve bronchospasm. Tiotropium is an anticholinergic medication that acts by relaxing the muscles around the airways, thereby helping to relieve bronchospasm in patients with COPD. This results in improved airflow and reduced shortness of breath.
A: Reduce mucus production - This is incorrect as tiotropium does not directly affect mucus production but rather focuses on bronchospasm relief.
C: Suppress cough - Tiotropium may help with cough associated with COPD by improving airflow, but its primary purpose is not to suppress cough.
D: Thin respiratory secretions - Tiotropium does not have a direct effect on thinning respiratory secretions; its main action is bronchodilation to relieve bronchospasm in COPD.