When assessing a male client who is receiving a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs), the nurse notes that the infusion was started 30 minutes ago, and 50 ml of blood is left to be infused. The client's vital signs are within normal limits. He reports feeling 'out of breath' but denies any other complaints. What action should the nurse take at this time?
- A. Administer a PRN prescription for diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
- B. Start the normal saline attached to the Y-tubing at the same rate.
- C. Decrease the intravenous flow rate of the PRBC transfusion.
- D. Ask the respiratory therapist to administer PRN albuterol (Ventolin).
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to decrease the intravenous flow rate of the PRBC transfusion. The client is showing early signs of a transfusion reaction, as evidenced by feeling 'out of breath'. By decreasing the flow rate of the transfusion, the nurse can slow down the rate at which the remaining blood is infused, potentially preventing a more severe reaction. Administering diphenhydramine or albuterol would not address the underlying issue of a potential transfusion reaction. Starting normal saline at the same rate may exacerbate the client's symptoms and is not indicated in this scenario.
You may also like to solve these questions
A young adult female client is seen in the emergency department for a minor injury following a motor vehicle collision. She states she is very angry at the person who hit her car. What is the best nursing response?
- A. You are lucky to be alive. Be grateful no one was killed.'
- B. I understand your car was not seriously damaged.'
- C. You are upset that this incident has brought you here.'
- D. Have you ever been in the emergency department before?'
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "You are upset that this incident has brought you here." This response acknowledges the client's feelings of anger and validates her emotions, showing empathy and understanding. It demonstrates active listening and therapeutic communication, which is crucial in building trust and rapport with the client.
Choice A is incorrect as it dismisses the client's feelings of anger and invalidates her emotions by shifting the focus to being grateful instead. Choice B is incorrect as it minimizes the client's emotional response by focusing on the material aspect of the situation rather than addressing her feelings. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the client's emotional state and is a closed-ended question that does not encourage further discussion or exploration of the client's feelings.
While assessing a 70-year-old female client with Alzheimer's disease, the nurse notes deep inflamed cracks at the corners of her mouth. What intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?
- A. Apply a moisturizing cream to the affected areas.
- B. Encourage the client to consume foods rich in vitamin B.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider for further evaluation.
- D. Ensure that the client gets adequate B vitamins in foods or supplements.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because deep inflamed cracks at the corners of the mouth can be a sign of vitamin B deficiency, specifically B2 (riboflavin) or B3 (niacin). Ensuring the client gets adequate B vitamins through foods or supplements can help address the deficiency and improve the condition. Option A is incorrect as simply applying a moisturizing cream does not address the underlying cause. Option B is not the best choice because while vitamin B-rich foods are beneficial, they may not be sufficient to correct a deficiency. Option C is not the immediate priority unless there are other concerning symptoms present.
A client's telemetry monitor indicates the sudden onset of ventricular fibrillation. Which assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Bounding erratic pulse.
- B. Regularly irregular pulse.
- C. Thready irregular pulse.
- D. No palpable pulse.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: No palpable pulse. Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening arrhythmia where the heart quivers and doesn't effectively pump blood. This results in the absence of a palpable pulse. The nurse should anticipate this finding as it indicates a severe cardiac emergency requiring immediate intervention. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because ventricular fibrillation leads to ineffective heart contractions, causing a lack of pulse rather than bounding, irregular, or thready pulses. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize the absence of a palpable pulse to initiate prompt resuscitative measures.
A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with severe abdominal pain. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Bowel sounds active in all quadrants.
- B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg.
- C. Rigid, board-like abdomen.
- D. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rigid, board-like abdomen. This finding suggests peritonitis, a serious complication of peptic ulcer disease, requiring immediate medical intervention. A: Active bowel sounds are expected. B: Blood pressure is within normal range. D: Heart rate is slightly elevated but not a critical finding. In summary, a rigid abdomen indicates peritonitis and requires urgent attention compared to the other choices.
Following a CVA, the nurse assesses that a client has developed dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a firm, distended abdomen. Which prescription for the client should the nurse question?
- A. Continuous tube feeding at 65 ml/hr via gastrostomy.
- B. Total parenteral nutrition to be infused at 125 ml/hour.
- C. Nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction.
- D. Metoclopramide (Reglan) intermittent piggyback.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Continuous tube feeding at 65 ml/hr via gastrostomy. After a CVA, dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a firm, distended abdomen indicate a risk for aspiration and bowel obstruction. Continuous tube feeding may worsen these issues. Option B provides nutrition intravenously, bypassing the gastrointestinal tract. Option C helps decompress the stomach. Option D is a medication to help with GI motility. Therefore, the nurse should question option A due to the risk of complications post-CVA.