A 10-year-old has undergone a cardiac catheterization. At the end of the procedure, the nurse should first assess:
- A. Pain
- B. Pulses
- C. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
- D. Catheterization report
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Checking pulsesâ€â€especially in the canulated extremityâ€â€assures perfusion to that extremity and is the priority postprocedure.
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The following are causes of cyanosis in the presence of 60% oxygen:
- A. Haemoglobin concentration < 5 g%
- B. Methaemoglobinaemia
- C. Thalassaemia
- D. Right to left shunt
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A right-to-left shunt can cause cyanosis even in the presence of high oxygen levels. Methaemoglobinaemia and severe anemia (Hb < 5 g%) can also cause cyanosis.
A nurse is preparing to administer an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. Which drug should the nurse administer?
- A. Captopril (Capoten)
- B. Furosemide (Lasix)
- C. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
- D. Chlorothiazide (Diuril)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Captopril is an ACE inhibitor. Furosemide is a loop diuretic. Spironolactone blocks the action of aldosterone. Chlorothiazide works on the distal tubules.
SVT in children differ from physiologic sinus tachycardia by all the following EXCEPT
- A. sudden onset and termination
- B. persistent ventricular rate of >180 bpm
- C. fixed RR interval on ECG
- D. evident change in heart rate with activity
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Physiologic sinus tachycardia can show changes in heart rate with activity, unlike SVT which has a fixed rate.
Clinical manifestations of haemophilia include:
- A. Bleeding following neonatal intramuscular injection
- B. Intracranial bleeding
- C. Gingival bleeding
- D. Menorrhagia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Intracranial bleeding is a serious and potentially life-threatening manifestation of hemophilia, particularly in severe cases.
Accepted maintenance treatment for chronic asthma includes the following:
- A. High-dose inhaled steroids and long-acting bronchodilators
- B. Montelucast
- C. Montelucast and inhaled steroids
- D. Long-acting ~2-agonists alone
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because high-dose inhaled steroids and long-acting bronchodilators are the mainstay of chronic asthma management. The other options (b-e) are less commonly used or not first-line.
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