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A 20-year-old woman is not having menstrual cycles. Her plasma progesterone concentration is found to be minimal. What is the explanation for the low level of progesterone?
- A. LH secretion rate is elevated
- B. LH secretion rate is suppressed
- C. FSH secretion rate is suppressed
- D. No corpus luteum is present
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: No corpus luteum is present. The corpus luteum is responsible for producing progesterone after ovulation. Without a corpus luteum, progesterone levels will be minimal, leading to a lack of menstrual cycles.
A: If LH secretion rate is elevated, it would lead to increased corpus luteum formation and progesterone production.
B: If LH secretion rate is suppressed, there would be insufficient stimulation for corpus luteum formation and progesterone production.
C: FSH is responsible for follicle development, not progesterone production.
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Which of the following are not parts of the clitoris?
- A. corpora cavernosa
- B. crura
- C. glans
- D. corpus spongiosum
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: corpus spongiosum. The clitoris does not have a corpus spongiosum. The clitoris is made up of the corpora cavernosa, crura, and glans. The corpus spongiosum is a part of the male anatomy, specifically found in the penis, and is responsible for maintaining erection by filling with blood during arousal. Therefore, the corpus spongiosum is not a part of the clitoris and is the correct answer.
The patient is unable to tolerate a bimanual pelvic examination due to pain in ovaries and fallopian tubes. Which disorder does the nurse suspect?
- A. Tertiary syphilis
- B. Genital herpes
- C. Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection
- D. Pelvic inflammatory disease
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID is characterized by inflammation and infection of the female reproductive organs, including ovaries and fallopian tubes, leading to pain during bimanual pelvic examination. This is due to the inflammatory response in the pelvic area. Tertiary syphilis (A), genital herpes (B), and HPV infection (C) do not typically present with acute pelvic pain during examination. Syphilis affects multiple organ systems, herpes presents with genital lesions, and HPV usually does not cause acute pelvic pain. Therefore, PID is the most likely diagnosis based on the symptoms described.
Absence of menstruation
- A. Rhinorrhea
- B. Amenorrhea
- C. Menorrhagia
- D. Leucorrhea
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Amenorrhea. Amenorrhea refers to the absence of menstruation, which can be caused by various factors such as hormonal imbalances, stress, pregnancy, or medical conditions. Rhinorrhea (A) is the medical term for a runny nose, unrelated to menstruation. Menorrhagia (C) is excessive menstrual bleeding, the opposite of absence of menstruation. Leucorrhea (D) is a vaginal discharge, not related to the absence of menstruation. Therefore, B is the correct answer as it directly addresses the absence of menstruation.
What is the final stage of labour?
- A. Dilation of the cervix.
- B. Delivery of the infant.
- C. Contraction of the uterus.
- D. Delivery of the placenta
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The final stage of labor is the delivery of the placenta. This occurs after the baby is born. The placenta is essential for providing nutrients and oxygen to the baby during pregnancy, but once the baby is born, it needs to be expelled from the mother's body. This process is crucial to prevent postpartum complications.
A: Dilation of the cervix occurs in the first stage of labor.
B: Delivery of the infant happens in the second stage of labor.
C: Contraction of the uterus is a continuous process throughout labor but does not signify the final stage.
In summary, the correct answer is D because it represents the final step in the labor process, while the other options pertain to earlier stages of labor.
Which of the following reasons would make a client who was treated successfully for a chlamydia infection at a greater risk for acquiring AIDS?
- A. The tissue irritation may be permanent, despite successful eradication of the bacteria.
- B. The immune system is already compromised.
- C. The bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis causes AIDS.
- D. The bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis continues to live inside the cells it has infected.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Having had an STI indicates existing vulnerabilities in the immune system, increasing susceptibility to HIV/AIDS.