The external male reproductive organs consist of the penis, testes, and
- A. urethra
- B. prostate
- C. scrotum
- D. seminal vesicle
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: scrotum. The scrotum is a pouch of skin that houses the testes, which are responsible for producing sperm and testosterone. It is considered an external male reproductive organ because it plays a crucial role in maintaining the optimal temperature for sperm production. The penis is also an external male reproductive organ, but it is not part of the scrotum. The urethra is a passage for both urine and semen, and while it is part of the male reproductive system, it is not considered an external reproductive organ. The prostate and seminal vesicle are internal male reproductive organs involved in producing and secreting seminal fluid, making them incorrect choices in this context.
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Which of the following are not parts of the clitoris?
- A. corpora cavernosa
- B. crura
- C. glans
- D. corpus spongiosum
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: corpus spongiosum. The clitoris does not have a corpus spongiosum. The clitoris is made up of the corpora cavernosa, crura, and glans. The corpus spongiosum is a part of the male anatomy, specifically found in the penis, and is responsible for maintaining erection by filling with blood during arousal. Therefore, the corpus spongiosum is not a part of the clitoris and is the correct answer.
The lateral extremity of the Fallopian tube:
- A. opens in the abdominal cavity;
- B. captures the ovule released by the ovary;
- C. displays flared edges;
- D. is linked to the uterus through the uterine ostium;
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice D is correct:
1. The lateral extremity of the Fallopian tube is connected to the uterus through the uterine ostium.
2. This connection allows the passage of the ovum from the Fallopian tube to the uterus for implantation.
3. The uterine ostium serves as the entry point for the ovum to travel from the Fallopian tube to the uterus.
4. Therefore, choice D is correct as it accurately describes the anatomical connection between the Fallopian tube and the uterus.
Summary:
- Choice A is incorrect because the lateral extremity of the Fallopian tube does not open in the abdominal cavity.
- Choice B is incorrect because the Fallopian tube does not capture the ovule released by the ovary.
- Choice C is incorrect because the lateral extremity of the Fallopian tube does not display flared edges.
- Choice D is correct as it accurately describes the anatomical connection
The patient is unable to tolerate a bimanual pelvic examination due to pain in ovaries and fallopian tubes. Which disorder does the nurse suspect?
- A. Tertiary syphilis
- B. Genital herpes
- C. Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection
- D. Pelvic inflammatory disease
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID is characterized by inflammation and infection of the female reproductive organs, including ovaries and fallopian tubes, leading to pain during bimanual pelvic examination. This is due to the inflammatory response in the pelvic area. Tertiary syphilis (A), genital herpes (B), and HPV infection (C) do not typically present with acute pelvic pain during examination. Syphilis affects multiple organ systems, herpes presents with genital lesions, and HPV usually does not cause acute pelvic pain. Therefore, PID is the most likely diagnosis based on the symptoms described.
The nurse monitors a client who has gone through an endoscopic examination. Following a culdoscopy, what does a nurse need to observe for in this client?
- A. The nurse observes the client for any discomfort in the shoulders.
- B. The nurse observes the client for the signs of internal bleeding and the symptoms of shock.
- C. The nurse observes the client for changes in skin color and for any rise in body temperature.
- D. The nurse observes the quantity and frequency of urinary output.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Discomfort in the shoulders is a common side effect after culdoscopy due to gas insufflation.
To avoid a perineal tear the obstetrician cuts the perineum posteriorly before delivery. This process is called
- A. Perineorrhaphy
- B. Episiotomy
- C. Cesarean section
- D. Tubal ligation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Episiotomy. An episiotomy is a surgical incision made in the perineum during childbirth to enlarge the vaginal opening and prevent severe perineal tears. This procedure is performed to facilitate the delivery of the baby and reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and the baby. Perineorrhaphy (A) is a surgical repair of a perineal tear or episiotomy after childbirth, not the procedure of making the incision. Cesarean section (C) is a surgical procedure to deliver a baby through an incision in the mother's abdomen and uterus, not related to perineal tears. Tubal ligation (D) is a permanent form of female sterilization by blocking or sealing the fallopian tubes to prevent pregnancy, not relevant to perineal tears during childbirth.