Reproductive System Quizlet

Reproductive System Quizlet Related

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The entire process of spermatogenesis takes approximately ________.

  • A. 25-50 days
  • B. 64-72 days
  • C. 120 days
  • D. 1 year
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 120 days. Spermatogenesis is the process of sperm production, which involves several stages including mitosis, meiosis, and maturation. It takes around 64 days for the sperm to develop from spermatogonia to mature spermatozoa in the seminiferous tubules. After that, the sperm undergo additional maturation in the epididymis for approximately 12-14 days. Therefore, the entire process of spermatogenesis, from the initial division of spermatogonia to the release of mature sperm, takes approximately 120 days.

Choice A (25-50 days) is too short for the complete process of spermatogenesis. Choice B (64-72 days) only covers the time for sperm development in the seminiferous tubules but does not include the maturation period in the epididymis. Choice D (1 year) is too long for spermatogenesis and does not accurately represent the

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The lateral extremity of the Fallopian tube:

  • A. opens in the abdominal cavity;
  • B. captures the ovule released by the ovary;
  • C. displays flared edges;
  • D. is linked to the uterus through the uterine ostium;
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice D is correct:
1. The lateral extremity of the Fallopian tube is connected to the uterus through the uterine ostium.
2. This connection allows the passage of the ovum from the Fallopian tube to the uterus for implantation.
3. The uterine ostium serves as the entry point for the ovum to travel from the Fallopian tube to the uterus.
4. Therefore, choice D is correct as it accurately describes the anatomical connection between the Fallopian tube and the uterus.

Summary:
- Choice A is incorrect because the lateral extremity of the Fallopian tube does not open in the abdominal cavity.
- Choice B is incorrect because the Fallopian tube does not capture the ovule released by the ovary.
- Choice C is incorrect because the lateral extremity of the Fallopian tube does not display flared edges.
- Choice D is correct as it accurately describes the anatomical connection

Absence of menstruation

  • A. Rhinorrhea
  • B. Amenorrhea
  • C. Menorrhagia
  • D. Leucorrhea
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Amenorrhea. Amenorrhea refers to the absence of menstruation, which can be caused by various factors such as hormonal imbalances, stress, pregnancy, or medical conditions. Rhinorrhea (A) is the medical term for a runny nose, unrelated to menstruation. Menorrhagia (C) is excessive menstrual bleeding, the opposite of absence of menstruation. Leucorrhea (D) is a vaginal discharge, not related to the absence of menstruation. Therefore, B is the correct answer as it directly addresses the absence of menstruation.

Three days after having a pelvic exenteration procedure, a client suddenly complains of a 'giving' sensation along her abdominal incision. You check under the dressing and find that the wound edges are open and loops of intestine are protruding. Which action should you take first?

  • A. Call the client's surgeon and report that wound evisceration has occurred.
  • B. Cover the wound with saline-soaked dressings.
  • C. Don sterile gloves and gently replace the intestine back in the wound.
  • D. Check the client's blood pressure and heart rate.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Covering the exposed tissue with saline-soaked dressings prevents drying and reduces risk of further complications.

The pituitary FSH controls:

  • A. the maturation of the ovarian follicles;
  • B. the estrogen secretion;
  • C. ovulation;
  • D. the progesterone secretion;
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The pituitary FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone) controls the maturation of ovarian follicles by stimulating their growth and development. FSH plays a crucial role in the early stages of the menstrual cycle. Estrogen secretion is primarily regulated by the ovaries, not FSH. Ovulation is mainly triggered by the surge in LH (Luteinizing Hormone) levels, not FSH. Progesterone secretion is mainly controlled by the corpus luteum, which forms after ovulation, not directly by FSH. Therefore, the correct answer is A as FSH directly influences the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles.

You have obtained these data about a 68-year-old client who is ready for discharge from the ED and has a new prescription for nitroglycerin (Nitro-Stat) 0.4 mg sublingual. Which information about the client has the most immediate implications for client teaching?

  • A. The client has benign prostatic hypertrophy and some urinary hesitancy.
  • B. The client's father and two brothers all have had myocardial infarctions.
  • C. The client uses sildenafil (Viagra) several times weekly for erectile dysfunction.
  • D. The client is unable to remember when he first experienced chest pain.
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Sildenafil and nitroglycerin together can cause severe hypotension; this interaction must be addressed immediately.

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