Nokea
Female reproductive system arises from
- A. Paramesonephric (Mullerian) ducts
- B. Mesonephric (Wolffian) ducts
- C. aldosterone
- D. FSH
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The female reproductive system arises from Paramesonephric (Mullerian) ducts. These ducts develop into the fallopian tubes, uterus, and upper part of the vagina. Initially present in both sexes, in females, they persist and differentiate into the female reproductive organs under the influence of estrogen. Mesonephric (Wolffian) ducts develop into male reproductive structures. Aldosterone is a hormone related to electrolyte balance and has no direct role in female reproductive system development. FSH (Follicle-Stimulating Hormone) is a pituitary hormone that stimulates ovarian follicle development but does not play a role in the initial development of the female reproductive system.
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Which finding from the nurse’s physical assessment of a 42-yr-old male patient should be reported to the health care provider?
- A. One testis hangs lower than the other.
- B. Genital hair distribution is diamond shaped
- C. Clear discharge is present at the penile meatus.
- D. Inguinal lymph nodes are nonpalpable bilaterally.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because palpable inguinal lymph nodes could indicate an underlying infection or malignancy, requiring further evaluation by the healthcare provider. This finding is concerning and needs attention.
A: One testis hanging lower than the other is a normal variation and does not typically require reporting.
B: Genital hair distribution being diamond-shaped is a common pattern and is not an abnormal finding that necessitates reporting.
C: Clear discharge at the penile meatus could be normal or due to benign conditions such as urethral irritation, so it may not require immediate reporting unless other concerning symptoms are present.
The pituitary FSH controls:
- A. the maturation of the ovarian follicles;
- B. the estrogen secretion;
- C. ovulation;
- D. the progesterone secretion;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The pituitary FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone) controls the maturation of ovarian follicles by stimulating their growth and development. FSH plays a crucial role in the early stages of the menstrual cycle. Estrogen secretion is primarily regulated by the ovaries, not FSH. Ovulation is mainly triggered by the surge in LH (Luteinizing Hormone) levels, not FSH. Progesterone secretion is mainly controlled by the corpus luteum, which forms after ovulation, not directly by FSH. Therefore, the correct answer is A as FSH directly influences the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles.
Birth control pills containing combinations of synthetic estrogen and progesterone compounds given for the first 21 days of the menstrual cycle are effective in preventing pregnancy. What is the explanation for their efficacy?
- A. Prevention of the preovulatory surge of luteinizing hormone secretion from the pituitary gland
- B. Prevention of development of the ovarian follicles
- C. Suppressing function of the corpus luteum soon after it forms
- D. Prevention of normal development of the endometrium
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Birth control pills containing estrogen and progesterone prevent the preovulatory surge of luteinizing hormone (LH) secretion from the pituitary gland. This leads to the inhibition of ovulation, preventing the release of an egg from the ovary. Without ovulation, fertilization cannot occur, effectively preventing pregnancy.
Choice B is incorrect because birth control pills do not prevent the development of ovarian follicles; they prevent ovulation. Choice C is incorrect because suppressing the function of the corpus luteum is not the primary mechanism of action of birth control pills. Choice D is incorrect because birth control pills do not prevent the normal development of the endometrium; they primarily prevent ovulation.
Three days after having a pelvic exenteration procedure, a client suddenly complains of a 'giving' sensation along her abdominal incision. You check under the dressing and find that the wound edges are open and loops of intestine are protruding. Which action should you take first?
- A. Call the client's surgeon and report that wound evisceration has occurred.
- B. Cover the wound with saline-soaked dressings.
- C. Don sterile gloves and gently replace the intestine back in the wound.
- D. Check the client's blood pressure and heart rate.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Covering the exposed tissue with saline-soaked dressings prevents drying and reduces risk of further complications.
Which is true of prostate cancer?
- A. It is commonly lethal.
- B. It is one of the less common forms of cancer.
- C. Family history does not appear to be a risk factor.
- D. Ethnicity is a risk factor.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Ethnicity is a risk factor for prostate cancer. African American men have a higher risk compared to other ethnicities. This is supported by research and epidemiological studies. Choice A is incorrect as prostate cancer, when detected early, has a high survival rate. Choice B is also incorrect as prostate cancer is one of the most common cancers in men. Choice C is incorrect as having a family history of prostate cancer is a known risk factor.