Nokea
A female athlete who took testosterone-like steroids for several months stopped having normal menstrual cycles. What is the best explanation for this observation?
- A. Testosterone stimulates inhibin production from the corpus luteum
- B. Testosterone binds to receptors in the endometrium, resulting in the endometrium’s failure to develop during the normal cycle
- C. Testosterone binds to receptors in the anterior pituitary that stimulate the secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)
- D. Testosterone inhibits the hypothalamic secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone and the pituitary secretion of LH and FSH
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because testosterone inhibits the hypothalamic secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) and the pituitary secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). This disruption in the normal hormonal feedback loop leads to the suppression of ovulation and the menstrual cycle. Option A is incorrect because inhibin is not directly affected by testosterone. Option B is incorrect as testosterone does not bind to endometrial receptors directly. Option C is incorrect because testosterone does not stimulate the secretion of FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary.
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To avoid a perineal tear the obstetrician cuts the perineum posteriorly before delivery. This process is called
- A. Perineorrhaphy
- B. Episiotomy
- C. Cesarean section
- D. Tubal ligation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Episiotomy. An episiotomy is a surgical incision made in the perineum during childbirth to enlarge the vaginal opening and prevent severe perineal tears. This procedure is performed to facilitate the delivery of the baby and reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and the baby. Perineorrhaphy (A) is a surgical repair of a perineal tear or episiotomy after childbirth, not the procedure of making the incision. Cesarean section (C) is a surgical procedure to deliver a baby through an incision in the mother's abdomen and uterus, not related to perineal tears. Tubal ligation (D) is a permanent form of female sterilization by blocking or sealing the fallopian tubes to prevent pregnancy, not relevant to perineal tears during childbirth.
Birth control pills containing combinations of synthetic estrogen and progesterone compounds given for the first 21 days of the menstrual cycle are effective in preventing pregnancy. What is the explanation for their efficacy?
- A. Prevention of the preovulatory surge of luteinizing hormone secretion from the pituitary gland
- B. Prevention of development of the ovarian follicles
- C. Suppressing function of the corpus luteum soon after it forms
- D. Prevention of normal development of the endometrium
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Birth control pills containing estrogen and progesterone prevent the preovulatory surge of luteinizing hormone (LH) secretion from the pituitary gland. This leads to the inhibition of ovulation, preventing the release of an egg from the ovary. Without ovulation, fertilization cannot occur, effectively preventing pregnancy.
Choice B is incorrect because birth control pills do not prevent the development of ovarian follicles; they prevent ovulation. Choice C is incorrect because suppressing the function of the corpus luteum is not the primary mechanism of action of birth control pills. Choice D is incorrect because birth control pills do not prevent the normal development of the endometrium; they primarily prevent ovulation.
Which finding from the nurse’s physical assessment of a 42-yr-old male patient should be reported to the health care provider?
- A. One testis hangs lower than the other.
- B. Genital hair distribution is diamond shaped
- C. Clear discharge is present at the penile meatus.
- D. Inguinal lymph nodes are nonpalpable bilaterally.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because palpable inguinal lymph nodes could indicate an underlying infection or malignancy, requiring further evaluation by the healthcare provider. This finding is concerning and needs attention.
A: One testis hanging lower than the other is a normal variation and does not typically require reporting.
B: Genital hair distribution being diamond-shaped is a common pattern and is not an abnormal finding that necessitates reporting.
C: Clear discharge at the penile meatus could be normal or due to benign conditions such as urethral irritation, so it may not require immediate reporting unless other concerning symptoms are present.
A client has been advised to use a pessary to provide support to the uterus. The nurse educates the client about pessary management and the precautions related to its use. In which of the following situations should the client report to the physician?
- A. Regarding a Pap test of the client
- B. Regarding the maintenance of a pessary
- C. When a white or yellow discharge from the vagina develops
- D. Regarding a culture and sensitivity test of vagina
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Abnormal discharge can indicate infection or other complications requiring medical attention.
The entire process of spermatogenesis takes approximately ________.
- A. 25-50 days
- B. 64-72 days
- C. 120 days
- D. 1 year
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 120 days. Spermatogenesis is the process of sperm production, which involves several stages including mitosis, meiosis, and maturation. It takes around 64 days for the sperm to develop from spermatogonia to mature spermatozoa in the seminiferous tubules. After that, the sperm undergo additional maturation in the epididymis for approximately 12-14 days. Therefore, the entire process of spermatogenesis, from the initial division of spermatogonia to the release of mature sperm, takes approximately 120 days.
Choice A (25-50 days) is too short for the complete process of spermatogenesis. Choice B (64-72 days) only covers the time for sperm development in the seminiferous tubules but does not include the maturation period in the epididymis. Choice D (1 year) is too long for spermatogenesis and does not accurately represent the