Nokea
A 25-year-old woman, G0 P0000, enters the infertility clinic stating that she has just learned she is positive for the BRCA1 and the BRCA2 genes. She asks the nurse what her options are for getting pregnant and breastfeeding her baby. The nurse should base her reply on which of the following?
- A. Fertility of women who carry the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes is similar to that of unaffected women.
- B. Women with these genes should be advised not to have children because the children could inherit the defective genes.
- C. Women with these genes should have their ovaries removed as soon as possible to prevent ovarian cancer.
- D. Lactation is contraindicated for women who carry the BRCA1 and BRCA 2 genes.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: BRCA1/2 status does not directly affect fertility or breastfeeding.
You may also like to solve these questions
A woman who is a carrier for sickle cell anemia is advised that if her baby has two recessive genes, the penetrance of the disease is 100%, but the expressivity is variable. Which of the following explanations will clarify this communication for the mother? All babies with 2 recessive sickle cell genes will:
- A. Develop painful vaso-occlusive crises during their first year of life.
- B. Exhibit at least some signs of the disease while in the neonatal nursery.
- C. Show some symptoms of the disease but the severity of the symptoms will be individual.
- D. Be diagnosed with sickle cell trait but will be healthy and disease-free throughout their lives.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Individuals with two recessive genes will have the disease, but symptom severity varies.
Lori, who is 32 years old, is taking clomiphene citrate to induce ovulation and presents to the office for a vaginal ultrasound. Lori mentions experiencing abdominal bloating, nausea, and weight gain of 5 pounds over the past 12 hours. What condition do these symptoms indicate?
- A. Ovulation
- B. Premenstrual syndrome
- C. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
- D. Failed ovulation induction
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Lori is taking clomiphene citrate which can lead to ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS).
2. Symptoms like abdominal bloating, weight gain, and nausea are characteristic of OHSS.
3. OHSS typically occurs after ovulation induction medications like clomiphene citrate.
4. Therefore, Lori's symptoms indicate ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome.
Summary:
A. Ovulation is incorrect as the symptoms suggest a complication of ovulation induction, not ovulation itself.
B. Premenstrual syndrome does not explain the acute symptoms and weight gain.
D. Failed ovulation induction is incorrect as the symptoms are not indicative of failed ovulation but rather an adverse reaction to the medication.
Karen, a 28-year-old female patient, has a hysterosalpingogram ordered but not scheduled. What should the nurse tell the patient?
- A. When your next menses starts, call the office to schedule your procedure.
- B. You may experience uterine cramping during the procedure.
- C. Radiation exposure will be avoided through the use of ultrasound imaging.
- D. The purpose of the test is to evaluate the inside of your uterus and your fallopian tubes.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A):
- A is correct because the nurse should instruct the patient to call the office when her next menstrual cycle starts to schedule the hysterosalpingogram. This is essential as the test needs to be performed during a specific phase of the menstrual cycle for accurate results.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
- B: While uterine cramping may be a possible side effect of the procedure, this information is not the most crucial to communicate to the patient at this time.
- C: While it is important to address concerns about radiation exposure, the use of ultrasound imaging doesn't eliminate the need for the patient to schedule the procedure at the appropriate time in her menstrual cycle.
- D: While this choice provides some information about the purpose of the test, it does not address the immediate action the patient needs to take to schedule the procedure correctly.
A nurse is providing care to a client in labor. A pelvic exam reveals a vertex presentation with the presenting part tilted toward the left side of the mother's pelvis and directed toward the anterior portion of the pelvis. When developing this client's plan of care, which intervention would the nurse include?
- A. implementing measures for a vaginal birth
- B. preparing the client for a cesarean birth
- C. assisting with artificial rupture of the membranes
- D. instituting continuous internal fetal monitoring
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The fetal presentation and position is left occiput anterior position or LOA, which is the most common and most favorable fetal position for birth. LOA along with right occiput anterior position are optimal positions for vaginal birth. Therefore the nurse should implement measures for a vaginal birth. This fetal presentation is not an indication for cesarean birth. Nor is there need for artificially rupturing the membranes. Continuous internal fetal monitoring would be warranted if the woman or fetus was considered to be high risk.
A 25-year-old female tells the nurse, 'I have always planned on having children, but now I have been diagnosed with leukemia. I will start chemotherapy treatments soon.' The nurse should discuss which fertility preservation options with this patient?
- A. Donor oocytes
- B. Gestational carrier
- C. Ovulation induction with oocyte retrieval
- D. Cryopreservation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cryopreservation. This option allows the patient to preserve her fertility by freezing her eggs before starting chemotherapy, which may affect her ovarian function. Cryopreservation is the most suitable choice in this scenario as it provides the patient with the opportunity to have biological children in the future. Donor oocytes (choice A) and gestational carrier (choice B) are not relevant options for this patient as she wants to use her own eggs. Ovulation induction with oocyte retrieval (choice C) may not be feasible due to the urgency of starting chemotherapy and the potential risks associated with ovarian stimulation.