Nokea
A female client seeks care at an infertility clinic. Which of the following tests may the client undergo to determine what, if any, infertility problem she may have? Select all that apply.
- A. Chorionic villus sampling.
- B. Endometrial biopsy.
- C. Hysterosalpingogram.
- D. Serum progesterone assay.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tests like endometrial biopsy, hysterosalpingogram, and serum progesterone assay help diagnose infertility causes.
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A patient asks why folic acid is recommended before conception. What should the nurse explain?
- A. It improves egg quality for fertilization.
- B. It prevents neural tube defects in the developing fetus.
- C. It reduces the risk of multiple pregnancies.
- D. It enhances hormone levels during ovulation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because folic acid is known to prevent neural tube defects like spina bifida in the developing fetus. This is crucial in the early stages of pregnancy when the neural tube is forming. Other choices are incorrect because folic acid does not directly impact egg quality, the risk of multiple pregnancies, or hormone levels during ovulation. Overall, the primary rationale for recommending folic acid before conception is to ensure the proper development of the baby's neural tube.
At ovulation, the basal body temperature usually:
- A. Rises abruptly and then falls 1 or 2 days after menstruation starts.
- B. Falls and remains low for the last half of the cycle.
- C. Is higher during the first half of the cycle than in the last half.
- D. Falls just before ovulation and is higher during the last half.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Basal body temperature usually rises abruptly at ovulation and then falls 1 or 2 days after menstruation starts. This rise indicates the release of an egg and the shift from the follicular phase to the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle.
A nurse is teaching a couple about the benefits of IVF. Which statement is accurate?
- A. IVF has a 100% success rate for all couples.
- B. IVF allows for genetic testing of embryos before transfer.
- C. IVF eliminates the need for hormonal injections.
- D. IVF can be performed without any fertility medications.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because IVF allows for genetic testing of embryos before transfer, enabling couples to screen for genetic disorders and select healthy embryos. This statement is accurate as genetic testing is a crucial benefit of IVF. The other choices are incorrect because: A is incorrect as IVF success rates vary and are not 100%; C is incorrect as hormonal injections are often necessary in IVF to stimulate egg production; D is incorrect as fertility medications are commonly used to prepare the body for IVF procedures.
A couple that has been attempting to become pregnant for 5 years is seeking assistance from an infertility clinic. The nurse assesses the clients' emotional responses to their infertility. Which of the following responses would the nurse expect to find? Select all that apply.
- A. Anger at others who have babies.
- B. Feelings of failure because they can't make a baby.
- C. Sexual excitement because they want so desperately to conceive a baby.
- D. Sadness because of the perceived loss of being a parent.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Common emotional responses to infertility include anger, feelings of failure, and sadness.
Lori, who is 32 years old, is taking clomiphene citrate to induce ovulation and presents to the office for a vaginal ultrasound. Lori mentions experiencing abdominal bloating, nausea, and weight gain of 5 pounds over the past 12 hours. What condition do these symptoms indicate?
- A. Ovulation
- B. Premenstrual syndrome
- C. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
- D. Failed ovulation induction
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Lori is taking clomiphene citrate which can lead to ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS).
2. Symptoms like abdominal bloating, weight gain, and nausea are characteristic of OHSS.
3. OHSS typically occurs after ovulation induction medications like clomiphene citrate.
4. Therefore, Lori's symptoms indicate ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome.
Summary:
A. Ovulation is incorrect as the symptoms suggest a complication of ovulation induction, not ovulation itself.
B. Premenstrual syndrome does not explain the acute symptoms and weight gain.
D. Failed ovulation induction is incorrect as the symptoms are not indicative of failed ovulation but rather an adverse reaction to the medication.