Infertility Quiz Questions Related

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A 36-year-old female patient presents to the reproductive medicine clinic for a follow-up appointment. Laboratory results indicate diminished ovarian reserve, and her partner's semen analysis is normal. Which infertility options may be appropriate for this client?

  • A. Donor oocytes
  • B. Ovulation induction with clomiphene citrate
  • C. Follitropin injections to stimulate ovarian follicles
  • D. In-vitro fertilization and embryo transfer
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Donor oocytes. Diminished ovarian reserve implies reduced quantity and quality of eggs, making natural conception challenging. Donor oocytes offer a viable option for achieving pregnancy.

B: Ovulation induction with clomiphene citrate may not be effective if ovarian reserve is significantly diminished.

C: Follitropin injections stimulate the patient's own ovarian follicles, which may not be successful if ovarian reserve is low.

D: In-vitro fertilization and embryo transfer require viable eggs from the patient, which may be limited in cases of diminished ovarian reserve.