A 28 y.o man is diagnosed with acute epididymitis. Which of the ff. symptoms supports this diagnosis?
- A. Burning and pain on urination
- B. Severe tenderness and swelling in the scrotum
- C. Foul-swelling ejaculate and severe scrotal swelling
- D. Foul-smelling urine and pain on urination
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acute epididymitis is inflammation of the epididymis, a coiled tube located behind the testicles that stores and carries sperm. The most common symptom of acute epididymitis is severe tenderness and swelling in the scrotum, typically on one side. Other symptoms may include redness, warmth, and pain in the affected testicle. While symptoms such as burning and pain on urination may be present in other conditions like urinary tract infections, the presence of severe tenderness and swelling in the scrotum is more indicative of acute epididymitis. The foul-smelling ejaculate and severe scrotal swelling are not typical symptoms of acute epididymitis.
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What should be included in the teaching plan to young adults about the spread of AIDS?
- A. Heterosexual transmission of HIV is on the rise
- B. The increase of HIV in children is primarily attributed to the rise in sexual abuse
- C. Herpes zoster is a form of the HIV virus
- D. Transmission of HIV by IV drug users is prominent even when sterile equipment is used
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: It is crucial to include in the teaching plan to young adults that heterosexual transmission of HIV is on the rise. This information is important as many young adults may not be aware of the risks associated with heterosexual transmission of HIV, leading to a false sense of security. By educating them about this fact, young adults can be more informed about how HIV spreads and take necessary precautions to protect themselves and others. Providing accurate information about the modes of HIV transmission will help prevent the further spread of the virus among young adults.
The nurse is assessing a 3-month-old during a well-baby visit. Which of the following findings would warrant the nurse to recommend that the baby have an ultrasound for a possible diagnosis of developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)?
- A. Bilateral plantar flexion
- B. Unequal knee heights
- C. Bilateral polydactyly
- D. Positive Babinski test 113
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition where the hip joint does not develop normally. It is important to detect DDH early in infants as it can lead to long-term hip problems. One of the key physical exam findings that may suggest DDH is unequal knee heights when the infant's legs are flexed. This is known as the Galeazzi sign, and it can indicate hip dysplasia or dislocation. Therefore, if a nurse observes this finding during an assessment of a 3-month-old infant, it would warrant recommending an ultrasound to further evaluate for possible DDH. Bilateral plantar flexion, bilateral polydactyly, and a positive Babinski test are not typically associated with DDH.
A nurse is teaching parents about caring for their child with chickenpox. The nurse should let the parents know that the child is considered to be no longer contagious when which occurs?
- A. When fever is absent
- B. When lesions are crusted
- C. 24 hours after lesions erupt
- D. 8 days after onset of illness
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The child with chickenpox is considered to be no longer contagious when the lesions are crusted over. This usually occurs around 7-10 days after the rash first appears. At this stage, the fluid-filled blisters have dried up and formed scabs, indicating that the infectious stage of the illness has passed. The child can then safely return to school or daycare without posing a risk of spreading the infection to others. It is important for parents and caregivers to continue practicing good hygiene and ensuring that the child does not scratch the scabs to prevent complications and scarring.
Which of the following is MOST likely considered a risk factor for extraneural metastasis in primary brain tumors?
- A. age less than 10 year
- B. female gender
- C. ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt insertion
- D. supratentorial tumor
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Younger age is a significant risk factor for extraneural metastasis in pediatric brain tumors.
Which of the ff should qualify as an abnormal result in a Romberg test?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Swaying, losing balance, or arm drifting
- C. Sneezing and wheezing
- D. Excessive cerumen in the outer ear
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During a Romberg test, the individual is asked to stand with feet together, arms at sides, and eyes closed. The tester then observes for swaying, losing balance, or arm drifting, which are signs of a positive Romberg test, indicating a potential issue with proprioception or vestibular function. Hypotension (choice A) refers to low blood pressure and is not directly assessed during a Romberg test. Sneezing and wheezing (choice C) are unrelated symptoms. Excessive cerumen in the outer ear (choice D) does not affect the results of a Romberg test focused on balance and proprioception.