A 30-year-old female presents with muscle weakness in the lower extremities and palpitations. Her symptoms have been progressively worse over the course of a 2 weeks. She reports to be in great health, but had a period of abdominal pain and diarrhea approximately 5 weeks ago. Her temperature is 98.9 deg F (37.2 deg C), blood pressure 117/82 mmHg, pulse is 102/min, and respirations are 16/min. On physical exam, there is 4-/5 muscle strength throughout the lower extremities. Bilateral patellar reflexes are 1+ and ankle reflexes are absent. Lumbar puncture was performed, and results are pending. Part 2: What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) is the first-line treatment for Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS). It works by modulating the immune response and reducing the severity of the disease. High-dose corticosteroids are not effective in GBS, and potassium chloride and pyridostigmine are not indicated for this condition.