Nokea
A 33-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a history of abnormal vaginal bleeding and pelvic pain. The nurse suspects that she might have fibroids. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find upon examination?
- A. An enlarged, irregular uterus that may be tender to palpation.
- B. An enlarged uterus with smooth contours and no tenderness.
- C. A smooth, tender uterus.
- D. A tender, soft, mobile uterus.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because fibroids typically present as an enlarged, irregular uterus that may be tender to palpation. Fibroids are non-cancerous growths in the uterus that can cause abnormal bleeding and pelvic pain. The irregular shape and tenderness are characteristic findings of fibroids.
Option B is incorrect because fibroids are not typically smooth and do not have smooth contours. Option C is incorrect because fibroids are not usually smooth and tender. Option D is incorrect because fibroids are not soft or mobile; they are usually firm and fixed in place within the uterus.
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A woman has just been diagnosed with HPV or genital warts. The nurse should counsel her to receive regular examinations because this virus makes her at a higher risk for _______ cancer.
- A. Uterine.
- B. Cervical.
- C. Ovarian.
- D. Endometrial.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cervical cancer. HPV is a known risk factor for cervical cancer as certain strains of the virus can lead to changes in cervical cells that may progress to cancer. Regular examinations, such as Pap smears, can help detect any abnormalities early on and prevent the development of cervical cancer.
Choice A: Uterine cancer is not directly linked to HPV.
Choice C: Ovarian cancer is not commonly associated with HPV.
Choice D: Endometrial cancer is not directly caused by HPV.
Regular screenings for cervical cancer are crucial for women with HPV to monitor any changes and take necessary preventive measures.
A 2-year-old boy has been diagnosed with physiologic cryptorchidism. Considering this diagnosis, during assessment the nurse will most likely observe:
- A. Testes that are hard and painful to palpation.
- B. Atrophic scrotum and a bilateral absence of the testis.
- C. Absence of the testis in the scrotum, but the testis can be milked down.
- D. Testes that migrate into the abdomen when the child squats or sits cross-legge
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Physiologic cryptorchidism refers to a common condition in newborns where the testes have not descended into the scrotum but can be manually pushed down (milked) into the scrotum. This is a normal developmental process that usually resolves by the age of 3 months.
Rationale:
1. Absence of the testis in the scrotum: In physiologic cryptorchidism, the testes are not palpable in the scrotum due to incomplete descent.
2. Testis can be milked down: The testes can be gently pushed down into the scrotum, indicating that they are present and capable of descending on their own.
Summary of other choices:
A: Testes that are hard and painful to palpation is incorrect because physiologic cryptorchidism is not associated with inflammation or pain.
B: Atrophic scrotum and bilateral absence of the testis is incorrect as
The nurse and urologist have both been unsuccessful
- A. Assuming a supine position for self-catheterization in catheterizing a patient with a prostatic obstruction and
- B. Using clean technique at home to catheterize a full bladder. What approach does the nurse anticipate
- C. Inserting the catheter 1 to 2 inches into the urethra the physician using to drain the patients bladder?
- D. Self-catheterizing every 2 hours at home
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: Rationale:
E is the correct answer because it addresses the need for further assessment and intervention by the healthcare team. The nurse and urologist's unsuccessful attempts indicate a need for a different approach. Options A, B, C, and D do not address the need for additional assessment or intervention. Option A focuses on positioning, B on technique, C on depth of insertion, and D on frequency of self-catheterization. None of these options address the need for a different plan of care. Therefore, E is the correct choice as it prompts the healthcare team to reassess and consider alternative strategies.
Which antibiotic is primarily bacteriostatic but becomes bactericidal at higher concentrations?:
- A. Erythromycin
- B. Tetracycline
- C. Chloramphenicol
- D. Ampicillin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Erythromycin is primarily bacteriostatic by inhibiting protein synthesis in bacteria. At higher concentrations, it can disrupt bacterial cell membranes, making it bactericidal. Tetracycline inhibits protein synthesis, Chloramphenicol blocks peptide bond formation, and Ampicillin disrupts bacterial cell wall synthesis. Therefore, A is correct because of its dual mechanism of action.
Which of the following drug which directly inhibits HIV-reverse transcriptase * without the need for intracellular activation by phosphorylation:
- A. Nelnavir
- B. Nevirapine
- C. Stavudine
- D. Didanosine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nevirapine. Nevirapine is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI) that directly inhibits HIV-reverse transcriptase without needing intracellular activation. It binds directly to the enzyme's active site, preventing the conversion of viral RNA to DNA.
Rationale:
1. Nelnavir (A) is a protease inhibitor that works by blocking the protease enzyme needed for viral replication, not reverse transcriptase inhibition.
2. Stavudine (C) and Didanosine (D) are nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) that require intracellular phosphorylation to become active, unlike Nevirapine.
In summary, Nevirapine is the correct answer as it directly inhibits HIV-reverse transcriptase without needing intracellular activation, distinguishing it from the other choices which belong to different drug classes or require intracellular phosphorylation.