Nokea
A 35-year-old male patient is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. He was originally being treated at home, but became worse when he quit taking his antibiotic prematurely. What is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient?
- A. Deficient knowledge: monitoring temperature
- B. Noncompliance
- C. Risk for injury related to hypoxia
- D. Non-adherence: overuse
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Stopping antibiotics early indicates noncompliance, worsening his condition.
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A nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a female client who has Bipolar disorder and a new prescription for Carbamazepine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select one that does not apply.)
- A. This medication can safely be taken during pregnancy.
- B. Eliminate grapefruit juice from your diet.
- C. You will need to have a complete blood count and carbamazepine levels drawn periodically.
- D. You'll your provider if you develop a rash.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Grapefruit juice interacts, blood counts monitor toxicity, rash signals reaction, and driving caution addresses sedation.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for Digoxin. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor and report which of the following adverse effects that is a manifestation Digoxin toxicity? (Select one that does not apply.)
- A. Fatigue
- B. Constipation
- C. Anorexia
- D. Diplopia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fatigue , anorexia , and diplopia are signs of digoxin toxicity.
Which of the following is seen in first order kinetics
- A. Rate depends upon plasma cone.
- B. Rate does not depend on plasma cone.
- C. Rate depends upon plasma protein binding
- D. Elimination depends upon amount of drug
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In first-order kinetics, the elimination rate is proportional to plasma concentration.
Beta blocker which has less first pass metabolism and more excretion through kidney is
- A. Propranolol
- B. Sotalol
- C. Bisprolol
- D. Nadolol
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sotalol has minimal first-pass metabolism and is excreted renally.
Daniel has been on 60 mg of prednisone for 10 days to treat a severe asthma exacerbation. It is time to discontinue the prednisone. How is prednisone discontinued?
- A. Patients with asthma are transitioned directly off the prednisone onto inhaled corticosteroids
- B. Prednisone can be abruptly discontinued with no adverse effects
- C. Develop a tapering schedule to slowly wean Daniel off the prednisone
- D. Substitute the prednisone with another anti-inflammatory such as ibuprofen
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tapering prevents adrenal suppression after high-dose prednisone; abrupt stop risks crisis.