Human Reproductive System Quizlet

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A baby is born with a penis, a scrotum with no testes, no vagina, and XX chromosomes. This condition is referred to as hermaphroditism. Which of the following could cause this abnormality?

  • A. Abnormally high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin production by the trophoblast cells
  • B. Abnormally low rates of estrogen production by the placenta
  • C. Abnormally high levels of luteinizing hormone in the maternal blood
  • D. Abnormally high levels of testosterone in the maternal blood
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Abnormally high levels of testosterone in the maternal blood. This can cause virilization of the female fetus, leading to the development of male external genitalia. Testosterone exposure during fetal development can result in the formation of a penis and scrotum without testes in a genetic female (XX).

Rationale:
1. Testosterone is responsible for the development of male external genitalia.
2. XX chromosomes indicate a genetic female.
3. Lack of testes indicates incomplete masculinization.
4. High levels of testosterone can override the default female development pattern.

Other choices are incorrect because:
A: Human chorionic gonadotropin does not directly affect fetal genital development.
B: Estrogen is not responsible for male genital development.
C: Luteinizing hormone does not directly influence the development of external genitalia in the fetus.

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The testicle vascularization:

  • A. the arterial one is provided by the gonadal artery, a branch off the abdominal aorta;
  • B. the venous one is tributary to the internal iliac vein;
  • C. the arterial one is provided by the testicular artery, a branch off the internal iliac artery;
  • D. the venous one is tributary to the inferior vena cava;
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the arterial vascularization of the testicle is indeed provided by the gonadal artery, which is a branch off the abdominal aorta. This is anatomically accurate as the gonadal artery supplies blood to the testicles.

Choice B is incorrect because the venous drainage of the testicle is to the testicular vein, which drains into the inferior vena cava, not the internal iliac vein as stated in option B.

Choice C is incorrect because the testicular artery, not the internal iliac artery, is responsible for the arterial supply to the testicle.

Choice D is incorrect because the venous drainage of the testicle is not tributary to the inferior vena cava; instead, it drains into the left renal vein.

The largest ovarian ligament is the _____ ligament.

  • A. ovarian
  • B. broad
  • C. suspensory
  • D. sacral
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: broad ligament. The broad ligament is the largest ovarian ligament, providing support to the uterus and ovaries. It consists of layers of peritoneum and serves as a protective barrier. The other choices are incorrect because the ovarian ligament specifically connects the ovary to the uterus, the suspensory ligament supports the ovary and contains blood vessels, and the sacral ligament is not related to the ovary.

A male nurse is teaching a client about the scrotum and the ability of sperm to be effective in fertility. The nurse teaches the client that the sperm is contained in the testes and that its temperature is regulated by which of the following?

  • A. Penis and surrounding structures
  • B. Bladder tone
  • C. Structure of the scrotum
  • D. Smooth and skeletal muscles in the scrotum
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The scrotum contains smooth and skeletal muscles that help regulate the temperature necessary for spermatogenesis.

Which patients meet the criteria for Chlamydia screening?

  • A. A 40-year-old woman who is sexually active and uses barrier protection consistently
  • B. A 15-year-old female woman who is sexually active with one partner
  • C. A 22-year-old woman who is sexually active and uses barrier protection inconsistently
  • D. A 23-year-old woman who has had four sexual partners in the last 3 months
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the 22-year-old woman who is sexually active and uses barrier protection inconsistently is at higher risk for Chlamydia infection. Inconsistent use of barrier protection increases the likelihood of exposure to the infection. The other choices (A, B, D) do not specifically mention increased risk factors for Chlamydia. Choice A mentions consistent barrier protection, which lowers the risk. Choice B mentions having one partner, which may reduce the risk compared to multiple partners. Choice D mentions having multiple partners, which increases the risk, but it does not mention current risky behavior like inconsistent barrier protection.

In the following figure, which lines most likely reflect the responses in a patient with nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?

  • A. A and C
  • B. A and D
  • C. B and C
  • D. B and D
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because in nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, the kidney tubules are unable to respond to antidiuretic hormone (ADH). This results in the inability to concentrate urine, leading to excessive dilute urine output. Lines A and D in the figure represent a high urine output (polyuria) and low urine osmolality, which are characteristic of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Choice A (A and C) is incorrect because line C does not show low urine osmolality. Choice C (B and C) is incorrect because line B does not show high urine output. Choice D (B and D) is incorrect because line D does not show low urine osmolality.

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