Nokea
A characteristic of monozygotic twins includes
- A. Always of the same sex
- B. Share a similar fingerprint pattern
- C. Have different blood groups
- D. Superfetation is a common finding
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Always of the same sex. Monozygotic twins develop from a single fertilized egg, so they have the same genetic material, making them always the same sex. This is due to the fact that the sex of an individual is determined by the chromosomes inherited from the parents. This is a fundamental principle of genetics. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because monozygotic twins can have different fingerprints, blood groups, and superfetation (conception that occurs during an existing pregnancy) is not common in monozygotic twins.
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When a hand/foot lies alongside the presenting part, the presentation is said to be
- A. Footling
- B. Transverse
- C. Compound
- D. Cephalic
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Compound. When a hand or foot lies alongside the presenting part during childbirth, it is called a compound presentation. This can be a complication as it increases the risk of the presenting part not fitting through the birth canal properly.
A: Footling presentation occurs when the baby's foot or feet are the first to emerge from the birth canal.
B: Transverse presentation is when the baby is lying sideways in the uterus.
D: Cephalic presentation is the ideal position for vaginal delivery, with the baby's head down and ready to be born.
Positive fasting blood sugar and oral glucose tolerance test, as well as being symptomatic, is diagnostic of
- A. Potential diabetes mellitus
- B. Gestational diabetes mellitus
- C. Clinical diabetes mellitus
- D. Chemical diabetes mellitus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Gestational diabetes mellitus. This condition is diagnosed when a pregnant woman exhibits symptoms of diabetes and has elevated fasting blood sugar and abnormal oral glucose tolerance test results. This specific combination of symptoms and test results during pregnancy points towards gestational diabetes mellitus.
A: Potential diabetes mellitus - Incorrect. The symptoms combined with abnormal test results suggest an active condition, not potential.
C: Clinical diabetes mellitus - Incorrect. While the symptoms and test results indicate diabetes, the context of pregnancy suggests gestational diabetes.
D: Chemical diabetes mellitus - Incorrect. This term is not commonly used in medical practice and does not specifically address the condition in the given scenario.
Clinical diagnosis of polyhydramnios is based on an amount of amniotic fluid exceeding
- A. 1500 ml
- B. 3000 ml
- C. 1900 ml
- D. 2500 ml
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (3000 ml) because polyhydramnios is defined as an excessive amount of amniotic fluid, typically exceeding 2000-2500 ml. A level of 3000 ml is commonly used as a cutoff point for clinical diagnosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they fall below the threshold typically considered diagnostic for polyhydramnios. Answer A (1500 ml) is too low, while choices C (1900 ml) and D (2500 ml) are below or at the lower end of the range typically associated with polyhydramnios. Therefore, the most appropriate threshold for diagnosing polyhydramnios is when the amount of amniotic fluid exceeds 3000 ml.
The baby dies immediately after birth due to the presence of
- A. Pulmonary stenosis
- B. Aortic coarctation
- C. Truncus arteriosus
- D. Ductus arteriosus
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Truncus arteriosus. In this condition, there is a single large vessel arising from the heart that gives rise to the systemic, pulmonary, and coronary arteries. This results in mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, leading to severe cyanosis and inadequate oxygenation of the body, causing immediate death after birth.
A: Pulmonary stenosis and B: Aortic coarctation typically do not cause immediate death after birth.
D: Ductus arteriosus is a normal fetal structure that closes shortly after birth and its presence would not directly cause immediate death.
Mr. Costigan is a 50-year-old male patient who recently had a screening colonoscopy because it was recommended by his primary care provider as a screening measure. He received a report that noted inflammatory polyps. He is concerned because one of his friends had polyps that turned into cancer. While advising Mr. Costigan, the AGACNP tells him that
- A. The polyps are considered precancerous, but if he has a colonoscopy every 3 to 5 years, any new polyps can be removed before they become malignant
- B. The primary danger is when there is a family history of colon cancer; he should discuss with his mother and father the presence of any colon cancer in the family
- C. There is no chance that these polyps could become cancerous, and their presence does not require any additional action or concern on his part
- D. He would be best served at this point to discuss with an oncologist the risks and benefits of aggressive versus conservative treatment.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because inflammatory polyps are indeed considered precancerous, meaning they have the potential to develop into cancer over time. By having regular colonoscopies every 3 to 5 years, any new polyps can be detected early and removed before they have a chance to become malignant. This approach helps in preventing the progression of polyps to cancerous lesions, thus reducing the risk of developing colon cancer.
Choice B is incorrect because while family history is a risk factor for colon cancer, the presence of inflammatory polyps in Mr. Costigan should not be overlooked or solely attributed to family history.
Choice C is incorrect because all polyps have the potential to become cancerous, including inflammatory polyps. Ignoring their presence can lead to missed opportunities for early intervention.
Choice D is incorrect because at this stage, the primary focus should be on surveillance and prevention through regular colonoscopies, rather than jumping into discussions about aggressive treatment options.