Nokea
A child has been taking mebendazole for the past 3 weeks after being diagnosed with roundworm. The nurse will determine the efficacy of the child's treatment by referencing what diagnostic test?
- A. Liver enzymes
- B. Stool for ova and parasites
- C. Colonoscopy or sigmoidoscopy
- D. Rectal swab for culture
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Progestin-only contraceptives are preferred in women who are at increased risk of thromboembolic events, such as those with a history of blood clots.
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A patient has been diagnosed with cytomegalovirus (CMV). Which of the following drugs would be ineffective in the treatment of this disease?
- A. Ribavirin (Rebetol)
- B. Ganciclovir (Cytovene) IV
- C. Foscarnet (Foscavir) IV
- D. Valganciclovir hydrochloride (Valcyte)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A male patient is receiving androgen therapy for the treatment of hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this treatment?
- A. Liver dysfunction
- B. Kidney dysfunction
- C. Heart failure
- D. Pulmonary embolism
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Androgen therapy can cause liver dysfunction, so liver function tests should be monitored during treatment.
A patient is starting on oral contraceptives. What important point should the nurse emphasize about taking the medication consistently?
- A. Oral contraceptives must be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and ensure effectiveness.
- B. Oral contraceptives should be taken in the morning to avoid side effects at night.
- C. Oral contraceptives should be taken with food to enhance absorption.
- D. Oral contraceptives can be skipped occasionally without significant consequences.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Oral contraceptives must be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
On the advice of his brother, a 53-year-old man has made an appointment to request a prescription for Viagra. The nurse who works at the clinic is reviewing the man's medical history and would recognize what health problem as being prohibitive to this treatment?
- A. Type 2 diabetes, treated with metformin
- B. Hypercholesterolemia, treated with simvastatin
- C. Angina, treated with nitroglycerin
- D. Hypertension, treated with metoprolol
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Nitroglycerin is contraindicated with Viagra due to their combined effects on lowering blood pressure, which can result in a severe drop and potentially life-threatening complications. Using both medications together can lead to hypotension, putting the patient at risk. Therefore, the presence of angina treated with nitroglycerin would make prescribing Viagra unsafe. Choices A, B, and D are not directly contraindicated with Viagra and can be managed concurrently with this treatment.
A toddler is displaying signs/symptoms of weakness and muscle atrophy. The pediatric neurologist suspects it may be a lower motor neuron disease called spinal muscular atrophy (SMA). The client's family asks how he got this. The nurse will respond:
- A. This could result from playing in soil and then ingesting bacteria that is now attaching his motor neurons.
- B. No one really knows how this disease is formed. We just know that in time, he may grow out of it.
- C. This is a degenerative disorder that tends to be inherited as an autosomal recessive trait.
- D. This is a segmental demyelination disorder that affects all nerve roots and eventually all muscle groups as well.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) is an inherited disorder, often autosomal recessive, that affects lower motor neurons.