Nokea
A client, age 42, visits the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician suspects cervical cancer. The nurse reviews the client’s history for risk factors for this disease. Which history finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer?
- A. Onset of sporadic sexual activity at age 17
- B. Pregnancy complicated with eclampsia at
- C. Spontaneous abortion at age 19 age 27
- D. Human papilloma virus infection at age 32
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection at age 32. HPV is a known risk factor for cervical cancer as it can lead to cellular changes in the cervix. Here's the rationale:
1. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause abnormal cell growth in the cervix.
2. Persistent HPV infection is a major risk factor for developing cervical cancer.
3. Age 32 is within the typical age range for HPV infection and the development of cervical cancer.
4. Choices A, B, and C are unrelated to the primary risk factor for cervical cancer, which is HPV infection.
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A nurse teaches a client newly diagnosed with diabetes how to administer insulin. What type of nursing intervention is this?
- A. Independent intervention
- B. Dependent intervention
- C. Interdependent intervention
- D. Collaborative intervention
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A (Independent intervention)
Rationale:
1. Independent interventions are actions that nurses can initiate without a doctor's order.
2. Teaching a client how to administer insulin falls under the scope of nursing practice.
3. Nurses have the knowledge and authority to educate clients on self-care management.
4. This intervention does not require collaboration with other healthcare providers.
Summary:
B: Dependent interventions require a doctor's order.
C: Interdependent interventions involve collaboration with other healthcare providers.
D: Collaborative interventions involve working with other healthcare professionals.
. During the first 24 hours after a client is diagnosed with Addisonian crisis, which of the following should the nurse perform frequently?
- A. Weigh the client.
- B. Administer oral hydrocortisone.
- C. Test urine for ketones.
- D. Assess vital signs.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, assess vital signs, as it is crucial to monitor the client's hemodynamic stability and response to treatment during the critical initial 24 hours of Addisonian crisis. Vital signs such as blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate provide valuable information about the client's condition and response to therapy. Weighing the client (choice A) and testing urine for ketones (choice C) may be important but not as immediately critical as monitoring vital signs. Administering oral hydrocortisone (choice B) is essential for treatment but does not require frequent administration within the first 24 hours.
The nurse is teaching a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus how to treat adverse reactions to insulin. To reverse a hypoglycemic reaction, the client ideally should ingest an oral carbohydrate. However, this treatment isn’t always a possible or safe. Therefore, the nurse should advise the client to keep which alternate treatment on hand?
- A. Epinephrine
- B. 50% dextrose
- C. Glucagon
- D. Hydrocortisone
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Glucagon. In a hypoglycemic reaction, glucagon can be administered to raise blood sugar levels quickly. Glucagon works by stimulating the liver to release stored glucose into the bloodstream. This is crucial in emergencies when oral carbohydrates are not feasible. Epinephrine (A) is used for severe allergic reactions, not hypoglycemia. 50% dextrose (B) is an oral carbohydrate used for hypoglycemia but is not always practical. Hydrocortisone (D) is a corticosteroid used for inflammatory conditions, not for hypoglycemic emergencies.
A client with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the metabolic unit. The primary goal for this admission is education. Which of the following goals should the nurse incorporate into her teaching plan?
- A. Maintenance of blood glucose levels between 180 and 200mg/dl
- B. Smoking reduction but not complete cessation
- C. An eye examination every 2 years until age 50
- D. Exercise and a weight reduction diet
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, as exercise and a weight reduction diet are essential components in managing type 2 diabetes. Exercise helps lower blood glucose levels and improves insulin sensitivity. Weight reduction reduces insulin resistance. Choice A is incorrect because maintaining blood glucose levels between 180-200mg/dl is too high and can lead to complications. Choice B is incorrect as complete smoking cessation is crucial for overall health and diabetes management. Choice C is incorrect because eye examinations should be done annually, not every 2 years, to monitor for diabetic retinopathy. In summary, choice D is the best option as it directly addresses the management of type 2 diabetes.
24 hours after undergoing kidney transplantation, a client develops a hyperacute rejection. To correct this problem, the nurse should prepare the client for:
- A. Removal of the transplanted kidney
- B. High-dose IV cyclosporine (Sandimmune) therapy
- C. Bone marrow transplant
- D. Intra-abdominal instillation of methylprednisolone sodium succinate (Solu-Medrol)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Removal of the transplanted kidney. Hyperacute rejection is a severe and immediate immune response to the transplanted organ. In this case, the transplanted kidney must be removed promptly to prevent further complications, as it is irreversibly damaged. High-dose IV cyclosporine (B) is used for immunosuppression but is not effective in treating hyperacute rejection. Bone marrow transplant (C) is not indicated for kidney rejection. Intra-abdominal instillation of methylprednisolone sodium succinate (D) is used for acute rejection, not hyperacute rejection.