A client at 26 weeks gestation is in the office after being discharged from the hospital for preterm contractions. She states that she no longer is having contractions but is really having trouble with heartburn and reflux. Which is the nurse's best response?
- A. Mix 1 teaspoon of baking soda in a glass of water and drink before eating your meal.
- B. Use a laxative when your reflux is bad and this will help to empty your stomach.
- C. Always drink plenty of fluids with your meals to help dilute the food.
- D. Avoid foods that contain a lot of fat.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Avoid foods that contain a lot of fat. This is the best response because fatty foods can worsen heartburn and reflux by relaxing the lower esophageal sphincter, leading to acid reflux. By avoiding high-fat foods, the client can reduce the likelihood of experiencing heartburn and reflux symptoms.
Rationale:
1. High-fat foods can delay stomach emptying, causing food to stay longer in the stomach, increasing the risk of reflux.
2. Fatty foods can trigger the production of more stomach acid, exacerbating heartburn and reflux.
3. Avoiding high-fat foods can help decrease pressure on the stomach, reducing the likelihood of acid reflux.
4. Other options (A, B, C) do not address the root cause of heartburn and reflux associated with high-fat foods.
In summary, choosing option D to avoid high-fat foods is the most appropriate response to help alleviate the client's heartburn and reflux symptoms during pregnancy.
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Which time-based description of a stage of development in pregnancy is accurate?
- A. Viability—22 to 37 weeks since the last menstrual period (LMP) (assuming a fetal weight >500 g).
- B. Full Term—Pregnancy from the beginning of week 39 of gestation to the end of week 40.
- C. Preterm—Pregnancy from 20 to 28 weeks.
- D. Postdate—Pregnancy that extends beyond 38 weeks.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Full Term is 39 to 40 weeks of gestation.
Jose's wife, Camilla, is 5 months pregnant and seems more interested in sex than during the first trimester. However, he has told her he is worried about having normal 'relations,' fearing it will hurt the baby. What information can the nurse provide to assist in their decision about sexual activity?
- A. The baby is well protected and will not be injured during intercourse as long as the membranes remain intact and there are no symptoms of preterm labor.
- B. Your husband is correct to be concerned. It would be best if you avoid female orgasm during intercourse.
- C. Intercourse is okay, but avoid experimenting with different partner positions.
- D. Enjoy intimate relations while you can. Things will change after the baby is born.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: The correct answer is A because it provides accurate information. Intercourse during pregnancy is generally safe as long as there are no complications, and the baby is well protected by the amniotic fluid and membranes.
Step 2: The membranes act as a barrier to protect the baby, and as long as there are no signs of preterm labor, intercourse should not harm the baby.
Step 3: Option B is incorrect because there is no evidence to support that female orgasm during intercourse could harm the baby. Option C is incorrect as there is no need to avoid experimenting with different positions unless advised by a healthcare provider. Option D is incorrect as it oversimplifies the situation and doesn't provide accurate information.
A 31-year-old woman believes that she may be pregnant. She took an OTC pregnancy test 1 week ago after missing her period; the
test was positive. During her assessment interview, the nurse enquires about the woman’s last menstrual period and asks whether
she is taking any medications. The woman states that she takes medicine for epilepsy. She has been under considerable stress lately
at work and has not been sleeping well. She also has a history of irregular periods. Her physical examination does not indicate that
she is pregnant. She has an ultrasound scan that reveals she is not pregnant. What is the most likely cause of the false-positive
pregnancy test result?
- A. She took the pregnancy test too early.
- B. She takes anticonvulsants.
- C. She has a fibroid tumor.
- D. She has been under considerable stress and has a hormone imbalance
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: She takes anticonvulsants. Anticonvulsants can interfere with pregnancy test results by causing false-positive results. Here's a step-by-step rationale:
1. Anticonvulsants, such as phenytoin and phenobarbital, contain hCG-like substances that can cross-react with pregnancy tests, leading to false-positive results.
2. The woman's history of epilepsy medication use suggests that she may be taking anticonvulsants, which could be the reason for the false-positive pregnancy test result.
3. Other choices are incorrect:
A: Taking the test too early is unlikely since a week has passed since the missed period.
C: Fibroid tumors do not typically cause false-positive pregnancy test results.
D: Stress and hormone imbalance could impact menstrual cycles but are less likely to directly affect pregnancy test results.
The nurse is assessing a patient in her 37th week of pregnancy for the psychological responses commonly experienced as birth nears. Which psychological responses should the nurse expect to evaluate? (Select all that apply.)
- A. The patient is excited to see her baby.
- B. The patient has not started to prepare the nursery for the new baby.
- C. The patient expresses concern about how to know if labor has started
- D. The patient and her spouse are concerned about getting to the birth center in time
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Answer A (Correct): The patient being excited to see her baby is a common psychological response as birth nears. This anticipation and eagerness are typical emotions experienced by expectant mothers as they approach the end of their pregnancy journey. It reflects positive emotional preparation for the upcoming birth.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: Not preparing the nursery may indicate lack of readiness or emotional readiness for the baby's arrival, but it does not directly relate to the psychological responses commonly experienced as birth nears.
C: Expressing concern about recognizing labor signs is a common worry but does not directly point to the psychological responses commonly experienced as birth nears.
D: Being concerned about reaching the birth center in time is more related to logistical or practical considerations rather than the psychological responses typically associated with impending childbirth.
Physiologic anemia often occurs during pregnancy as a result of:
- A. inadequate intake of iron.
- B. dilution of hemoglobin concentration.
- C. the fetus establishing iron stores.
- D. decreased production of erythrocytes.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Physiologic anemia during pregnancy occurs due to the expansion of plasma volume, causing a dilution of hemoglobin concentration. Increased blood volume is necessary to support the growing fetus, leading to a relative decrease in hemoglobin levels. Inadequate iron intake (Choice A) can cause iron-deficiency anemia but is not the primary reason for physiologic anemia in pregnancy. The fetus establishing iron stores (Choice C) is unrelated to the maternal anemia. Decreased production of erythrocytes (Choice D) is not the main cause of anemia in pregnancy; rather, it is the dilution effect from increased plasma volume.