Nokea
A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Muscle pain
- B. Dry cough
- C. Peripheral edema
- D. Increased urination
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema due to vasodilation. Clients should monitor for this adverse effect characterized by swelling in the extremities. Muscle pain (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of Verapamil. Dry cough (choice B) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors. Increased urination (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of Verapamil. Therefore, the correct answer is monitoring for peripheral edema.
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What instruction should the nurse give regarding the adverse effect of dry mouth associated with diphenhydramine for a client with poison ivy?
- A. Administer the medication with food.
- B. Chew on sugarless gum or suck on hard, sour candies.
- C. Place a humidifier at your bedside every evening.
- D. Discontinue the medication and notify your provider.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for dry mouth associated with diphenhydramine is to chew on sugarless gum or suck on hard, sour candies. These actions stimulate saliva production, providing relief from dry mouth. Administering the medication with food (Choice A) may help reduce stomach upset but won't address dry mouth. Placing a humidifier at the bedside (Choice C) can help with dry air-related issues but won't specifically target dry mouth. Discontinuing the medication (Choice D) without consulting the provider is not recommended and may lead to inadequate treatment of poison ivy.
What is the antidote for Heparin?
- A. Atropine
- B. Protamine sulfate
- C. Calcium carbonate
- D. Ferrous sulfate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the specific antidote used to reverse the effects of Heparin by binding to heparin and neutralizing its anticoagulant properties. It is crucial to administer Protamine sulfate promptly in cases of Heparin overdose or when immediate reversal of Heparin's effects is required to prevent bleeding complications. Atropine is not the antidote for Heparin; it is commonly used for treating bradycardia. Calcium carbonate is used to treat conditions like acid indigestion, heartburn, or calcium deficiency. Ferrous sulfate is a form of iron supplement used to treat or prevent iron deficiency anemia. None of these alternatives are antidotes for Heparin.
When teaching a client who has a new prescription for Ciprofloxacin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with an antacid.
- B. Avoid direct sunlight.
- C. Increase your intake of dairy products.
- D. Expect urine to turn orange.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Ciprofloxacin is to avoid direct sunlight. Ciprofloxacin can cause photosensitivity, increasing the risk of sunburn. Clients should be advised to avoid direct sunlight and wear protective clothing, including hats and sunglasses when going outdoors to prevent skin damage. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Ciprofloxacin with an antacid can reduce its absorption, so they should not be taken together. Increasing dairy product intake is not necessary or relevant to taking Ciprofloxacin. While Ciprofloxacin can discolor urine, turning it orange, this is not a critical side effect that requires specific instructions for the client.
A client is undergoing preparation for extensive colorectal surgery. Which of the following oral antibiotics should be administered to suppress normal flora in the GI tract?
- A. Kanamycin
- B. Gentamicin
- C. Neomycin
- D. Tobramycin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neomycin. Neomycin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic, is administered orally before GI surgery to eliminate the normal flora in the large intestine. This helps reduce the risk of postoperative infections by decreasing the bacterial load in the gut. Choices A, B, and D (Kanamycin, Gentamicin, Tobramycin) are not typically used to suppress normal flora in the GI tract before colorectal surgery.
A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication list of a client scheduled for surgery. Which of the following medications places the client at risk for increased bleeding during surgery?
- A. Warfarin
- B. Acetaminophen
- C. Ibuprofen
- D. Aspirin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Aspirin is an anticoagulant that inhibits platelet function, increasing the risk of bleeding during surgery. It is important for the healthcare professional to identify this medication, inform the surgical team, and consider withholding it prior to surgery to reduce the risk of excessive bleeding. Warfarin is also an anticoagulant but can be managed by adjusting the dosage or monitoring INR levels. Acetaminophen and ibuprofen are not associated with increased bleeding risk as they do not affect platelet function like aspirin.