Nokea
A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about the physiological changes that occur during pregnancy. The client is at 10 weeks of gestation and has a BMI within the expected reference range. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should gain more than 15 to 20 pounds during my pregnancy.
- B. I will likely need to use alternative positions for sexual intercourse.
- C. I'm glad I had a breast reduction years ago so they will not enlarge with my pregnancy.
- D. I'm glad I have a light complexion and will not get any stretch marks.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "I will likely need to use alternative positions for sexual intercourse." At 10 weeks of gestation, the uterus begins to enlarge, potentially causing discomfort in the missionary position. This statement shows an understanding of the physical changes in pregnancy.
A is incorrect because the recommended weight gain for a client with normal BMI is 25-35 pounds during pregnancy, not less than 15-20 pounds. C is incorrect as breast size typically increases during pregnancy due to hormonal changes, regardless of prior breast reduction surgery. D is incorrect because stretch marks are common during pregnancy, regardless of skin complexion.
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A client who received carboprost for postpartum hemorrhage is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings is an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypothermia
- C. Constipation
- D. Muscle weakness
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Carboprost is a prostaglandin used to treat postpartum hemorrhage that can cause hypertension as an adverse effect due to its vasoconstrictive properties. This can lead to increased blood pressure, which should be monitored closely. Hypothermia (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of carboprost. Constipation (choice C) and muscle weakness (choice D) are also not typically associated with carboprost use. Monitoring blood pressure and signs of hypertension is crucial due to the potential adverse effects of carboprost.
A client at 40 weeks of gestation is experiencing contractions every 3 to 5 minutes, becoming stronger. A vaginal exam by the registered nurse reveals the client's cervix is 3 cm dilated, 80% effaced, and -1 station. The client requests pain medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse prepare to take? (Select all that apply)
- A. Provide ice chips.
- B. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
- C. Administer opioid analgesic medication.
- D. Provide ice chips.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action is to administer opioid analgesic medication (Choice C). At 40 weeks gestation with contractions every 3-5 minutes, 3 cm dilated, 80% effaced, and -1 station, the client is in active labor. Pain medication is appropriate to manage discomfort during labor. Opioid analgesics can help reduce pain intensity while still allowing the client to remain alert and participate in labor. Ice chips (Choice A and D) are not directly related to pain management in labor. Inserting a urinary catheter (Choice B) is not indicated unless there are specific concerns about bladder distention.
A client is to receive oxytocin to augment labor. Which finding contraindicates the initiation of the oxytocin infusion and should be reported to the provider?
- A. Late decelerations
- B. Moderate variability of the FHR
- C. Cessation of uterine dilation
- D. Prolonged active phase of labor
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Late decelerations indicate fetal distress, suggesting compromised oxygenation. Starting oxytocin can further stress the fetus, worsening decelerations. Report to prevent harm. B is incorrect as moderate variability is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being. C is incorrect as cessation of uterine dilation may indicate uterine hyperstimulation, not fetal distress. D is incorrect as prolonged active labor phase alone doesn't necessarily contraindicate oxytocin, but it may require monitoring.
A client is in labor and reports increasing rectal pressure. She is experiencing contractions 2 to 3 minutes apart, each lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and a vaginal examination reveals that her cervix is dilated to 9 cm. The client is in which of the following phases of labor?
- A. Active
- B. Transition
- C. Latent
- D. Descent
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Transition. Transition phase occurs when the cervix is dilated from 8 to 10 cm. This phase is characterized by intense contractions close together, increased rectal pressure, and emotional changes. The client in this scenario has contractions 2 to 3 minutes apart, lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and the cervix is dilated to 9 cm. This aligns with the characteristics of the transition phase.
Summary:
A: Active phase occurs when the cervix is dilated from 4 to 7 cm.
C: Latent phase occurs when the cervix is dilated from 0 to 3 cm.
D: Descent phase is not a recognized phase of labor.
A nurse in a health clinic is reinforcing teaching about contraceptive use with a group of clients. Which of the following client statements demonstrates understanding?
- A. Using a water-soluble lubricant with condoms can help prevent breakage and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy and STIs.
- B. A diaphragm should be removed 2 hours after intercourse.
- C. Oral contraceptives can worsen a case of acne.
- D. A contraceptive patch is replaced once a month.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because using a water-soluble lubricant with condoms can indeed help prevent breakage and maintain effectiveness in preventing pregnancy and STIs. Water-based lubricants are safe to use with condoms as they do not weaken the latex.
Option B is incorrect as a diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse, not removed after 2 hours. Option C is also incorrect as oral contraceptives are known to improve acne in many cases. Option D is incorrect as a contraceptive patch is typically replaced weekly, not monthly.