A client is prescribed disulfiram as part of his alcohol treatment program to prevent relapse. The client asks the nurse, How will this drug help me? Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
- A. It will help to cure your alcoholism.
- B. It can help to prevent you from drinking.
- C. It makes the withdrawal symptoms less troublesome.
- D. It helps to clear the alcohol out of your body.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Disulfiram (B) prevents drinking by causing unpleasant reactions (e.g., nausea) if alcohol is consumed, acting as a deterrent. It does not cure alcoholism (A), reduce withdrawal symptoms (C), or clear alcohol from the body (D).
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The nurse is completing the admission of a client who is seeking treatment for alcoholism. He tells the nurse that the last time he had any alcohol to drink was at 10:00 AM before he left for the hospital. The nurse closely monitors the client. Which of the following would lead the nurse to suspect that the client is experiencing stage 1 of alcohol withdrawal syndrome? Select all that apply.
- A. Slight diaphoresis
- B. Hand tremors
- C. Intermittent confusion
- D. Heart rate of 135 beats/min
- E. Normal blood pressure
Correct Answer: A,B,E
Rationale: Stage 1 alcohol withdrawal (6?24 hours post-last drink) includes slight diaphoresis (A), hand tremors (B), and normal blood pressure (E). Intermittent confusion (C) and heart rate of 135 (D) are more typical of later stages like delirium tremens.
A nurse is working with a client who is addicted to heroin. The nurse engages in harm reduction by teaching the client about which of the following?
- A. Using bleach solution to disinfect dirty needles
- B. Problem solving
- C. Healthy coping skills
- D. Proper use of naltrexone (Trexan)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Harm reduction in heroin addiction includes teaching needle disinfection with bleach (A) to reduce infection risk. Problem solving (B) and coping skills (C) are broader interventions, and naltrexone (D) is more relevant for alcohol or opioid relapse prevention.
A nurse is talking with a 57-year-old client who has been a heavy drinker for many years. The client is being treated for alcoholism, and this is her second week as an inpatient on the psychiatric unit. It is 5:00 AM, and the client has been having difficulty sleeping. The client is an orthopedic nurse, and although she is clothed in a hospital-issued gown and robe, she is wearing a stethoscope around her neck that the nurse recognizes as belonging to one of the staff nurses. When the nurse asks her why she is wearing the stethoscope and where she got it, the client gives her a long and involved reply that basically describes how her nursing supervisor came to visit and gave it to her to wear so she?d remember to get well. The nurse suspects that the client may be experiencing which of the following?
- A. Wernicke?s syndrome
- B. Delirium tremens
- C. Korsakoff?s psychosis
- D. Malignant hyperthermia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The client?s confabulation (fabricated story about the stethoscope) and insomnia suggest Korsakoff?s psychosis (C), a chronic condition from alcohol-related thiamine deficiency causing memory deficits. Wernicke?s syndrome (A) involves ataxia and confusion, delirium tremens (B) includes severe autonomic symptoms, and malignant hyperthermia (D) is unrelated to alcohol.
A client with a history of opioid abuse is exhibiting manifestations of moderate withdrawal. Which of the following would the nurse expect to assess?
- A. Rhinorrhea
- B. Lacrimation
- C. Dilated pupils
- D. Dysphoria
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D
Rationale: Moderate opioid withdrawal includes rhinorrhea (A), lacrimation (B), dilated pupils (C), and dysphoria (D) due to autonomic and psychological distress. All are characteristic symptoms.
A client is brought into the emergency department because he was involved in an automobile accident. His blood alcohol level (BAL) is 0.10 mg %. Based on this finding, the nurse would expect to assess which of the following?
- A. Difficulty with coordination
- B. Stupor
- C. Emotional lability
- D. Ataxia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A BAL of 0.10 mg % (0.10 g/dL) typically causes difficulty with coordination (A), such as impaired motor skills. Stupor (B) occurs at higher levels (e.g., >0.30), emotional lability (C) is less specific, and ataxia (D) is more severe and less common at this level.
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