A client is receiving an I.V. infusion of mannitol (Osmitrol) after undergoing intracranial surgery to remove a brain tumor. To determine whether this drug is producing its therapeutic effect, the nurse should consider which finding the most significant?
- A. Decreased level of consciousness (LOC)
- B. Elevated blood pressure
- C. Increased urine output
- D. Decreased heart rate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The therapeutic effect of mannitol is diuresis, which is confirmed by an increased urine output. A decreased LOC and elevated blood pressure may indicate lack of therapeutic effectiveness. A decreased heart rate doesn't indicate that mannitol is effective.
You may also like to solve these questions
A client is sent to the psychiatric unit for forensic evaluation after he is accused of arson. His tentative diagnosis is antisocial personality disorder. In reviewing the client's record, the nurse could expect to find:
- A. A history of consistent employment
- B. A below-average intelligence
- C. A history of cruelty to animals
- D. An expression of remorse for his actions
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Antisocial personality disorder is associated with a history of cruelty to animals , reflecting disregard for others. Consistent employment and remorse are unlikely. Intelligence is typically average or above.
A nurse is providing care for an elderly patient with dementia. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate?
- A. Encourage the patient to make complex decisions
- B. Provide a structured routine
- C. Limit social interactions
- D. Avoid physical activity
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A structured routine reduces confusion and promotes safety in dementia. Complex decisions overwhelm, social interactions benefit, and activity supports health.
The nurse observes a LPN/LVN perform a wet-to-dry dressing change on a 2-inch abdominal incision. Which of the following behaviors, if performed by the LPN/LVN, would indicate an understanding of proper technique?
- A. A clean cotton ball is used to cleanse from the top of the incision to the bottom of the incision using long strokes.
- B. The incision is packed with sterile gauze, and then sterile saline is poured over the dressing.
- C. The nurse packs wet gauze into the incision without overlapping it onto the skin.
- D. The old dressing is saturated with sterile saline before it is removed.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Wet-to-dry dressings should have wet gauze packed into the incision without overlapping onto the skin to prevent skin breakdown. Cleansing (A) should be from the center outward, dressings (B) are soaked before packing, and old dressings (D) are removed dry to debride the wound.
A patient with a history of myocardial infarction is prescribed aspirin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Avoid taking this medication with other NSAIDs
- C. Discontinue the medication if you experience ringing in your ears.
- D. Take this medication only when you have chest pain.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Avoiding other NSAIDs prevents increased bleeding risk with aspirin, a key antiplatelet post-MI. Empty stomach increases GI upset, ringing requires reporting, and aspirin is daily, not PRN.
Which of the following clients is at greatest risk for postpartal hemorrhage?
- A. A gravida 1 para 1 with an uncomplicated delivery of a 7-pound infant
- B. A gravida 1 para 0 with a history of polycystic ovarian disease
- C. A gravida 2 para 2 with a history of low birth weight infants
- D. A gravida 4 para 3 with a Caesarean section
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A gravida 4 para 3 with a Caesarean section is at higher risk for postpartal hemorrhage due to multiparity and surgical delivery, which can lead to uterine atony and increased bleeding risk.
Nokea