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A client is wearing a continuous cardiac monitor, which begins to alarm at the nurse's station. The nurse sees no electrocardiographic complexes on the screen. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Call a code blue.
- B. Call the healthcare provider.
- C. Check the client's status and lead placement.
- D. Press the recorder button on the ECG console.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take is to check the client's status and lead placement. This step is crucial to ensure that the alarm is not triggered by a simple issue such as lead displacement. Calling a code blue (choice A) is premature without assessing the client first. Contacting the healthcare provider (choice B) can be done after ruling out basic causes for the alarm. Pressing the recorder button (choice D) is not as urgent as checking the client's status and lead placement in this scenario.
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A client admitted with coronary artery disease (CAD) reports dyspnea at rest. What intervention should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Providing a walker to aid in ambulation
- B. Elevating the head of the bed to at least 45 degrees
- C. Performing continuous monitoring of oxygen saturation
- D. Placing an oxygen cannula at the bedside for use if needed
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) experiencing dyspnea at rest, the priority intervention should be to elevate the head of the bed to at least 45 degrees. This position helps reduce the work of breathing, optimizes lung expansion, and can alleviate symptoms of dyspnea by improving oxygenation and ventilation. Providing a walker for ambulation, monitoring oxygen saturation, and having an oxygen cannula at the bedside are important interventions but not the priority when the client is experiencing dyspnea at rest. Elevating the head of the bed is crucial to improve respiratory function and should be prioritized in this situation.
A client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should monitor the client for which sign of digoxin toxicity?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Insomnia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia due to its effects on the heart's electrical conduction system. The nurse should closely monitor the client's heart rate for any signs of slowing down, as it can indicate toxicity and potentially lead to serious complications. Hypertension, hyperglycemia, and insomnia are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Hypertension is more commonly associated with other conditions or medications, hyperglycemia can be seen in conditions like diabetes or certain medications, and insomnia is not a typical sign of digoxin toxicity.
An NP is prescribing a medication for a 6-month-old infant. The medication comes in the following formulations. Which one should the NP select to improve absorption and distribution of the medication?
- A. Oral elixir
- B. Rectal suppository
- C. Lipid soluble compound
- D. Sustained-release capsule
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because oral elixirs ensure even drug distribution and good GI absorption in infants. Choice B is incorrect (rectal absorption is unreliable). Choice C is wrong (lipid solubility doesn’t ensure distribution). Choice D is inaccurate (sustained-release is poorly absorbed in infants).
The client is taking interferon alfa-2a (Roferon-A) and ribavirin (Virazole) combination therapy for hepatitis C and reports overwhelming feelings of depression. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Recommend mental health counseling.
- B. Review the medication actions and interactions.
- C. Assess the client's daily activity level.
- D. Provide information about a support group.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to review the medication actions and interactions. Interferon alfa-2a and ribavirin combination therapy for hepatitis C can lead to neuropsychiatric side effects, including depression. By assessing the medication actions and interactions, the nurse can identify if the depression is a known side effect of the medications, and further intervention or adjustment of the treatment plan may be required to address the client's emotional well-being. Recommending mental health counseling (choice A) may be necessary but should come after ensuring that the depression is not solely caused by medication side effects. Assessing the client's daily activity level (choice C) and providing information about a support group (choice D) are important interventions but addressing the medication's potential contribution to the depression takes precedence.
The client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance is the nurse most likely to monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. The nurse should closely monitor for decreased potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias or muscle weakness. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypernatremia (Choice B) refers to high sodium levels and is not the primary concern with furosemide. Hyponatremia (Choice D) is low sodium levels, which can occur but is less common than hypokalemia in clients taking furosemide.