Nokea
Which factor places the client at the highest risk of pre-eclampsia?
- A. White race
- B. Multiparity
- C. Obesity
- D. Infertility
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obesity. Obesity is a significant risk factor for pre-eclampsia due to the increased strain on the cardiovascular system and potential inflammatory effects. It can lead to hypertension and vascular dysfunction, contributing to the development of pre-eclampsia. White race (A) is not a specific risk factor for pre-eclampsia. Multiparity (B) is a risk factor, but obesity has a higher association with pre-eclampsia. Infertility (D) is not a known risk factor for pre-eclampsia. In summary, obesity poses the highest risk due to its direct impact on cardiovascular health and inflammation.
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A nurse is caring for a client who is G1P0 and 36 weeks gestation who has been diagnosed with severe pre-eclampsia. Her blood pressure is 165/110. The physician has ordered hydralazine. The nurse knows she should do which of the following when administering this medication?
- A. Position the client supine with the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees.
- B. Get baseline blood pressure and pulse and monitor frequently during administration.
- C. Administer medication every 5 minutes until blood pressure is stabilized.
- D. Inform the client that this may cause a positive direct Coombs test result.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Getting baseline blood pressure and pulse and monitoring frequently during administration is crucial because hydralazine is a potent antihypertensive medication that can cause significant drops in blood pressure. Monitoring allows for early detection of hypotension or adverse reactions.
A is incorrect because positioning the client supine with the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees is not specific to the administration of hydralazine for pre-eclampsia.
C is incorrect because administering medication every 5 minutes until blood pressure is stabilized is not a standard protocol for hydralazine administration; it should be given as per physician's orders with appropriate monitoring.
D is incorrect because informing the client about a positive direct Coombs test result is not relevant to the administration of hydralazine; this is more pertinent to medications that can cause hemolytic anemia.
The doctor suspects that the client is in preterm labor. Which symptom is consistent with this diagnosis?
- A. Severe pain in the lower quadrant
- B. Severe pain and hard abdomen to palpation
- C. Painless vaginal bleeding
- D. Abdominal cramping and lower back pain
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Abdominal cramping and lower back pain. These symptoms are typical of preterm labor due to the contractions of the uterus. Lower back pain is a common sign of labor, and abdominal cramping is indicative of uterine contractions. Severe pain in the lower quadrant (A) is more consistent with issues like appendicitis. Severe pain and hard abdomen (B) may indicate a more serious condition like placental abruption. Painless vaginal bleeding (C) is more characteristic of conditions like placenta previa. Therefore, choice D is the most appropriate in the context of suspected preterm labor.
The nurse is caring for a client who is at 24 weeks gestation. Which assessment requires further intervention?
- A. Hemoglobin 11 and hematocrit 33
- B. Blood pressure of 130/80
- C. Patient has slight pedal swelling
- D. Urine dipstick for protein 3+
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a urine dipstick showing protein of 3+ indicates significant proteinuria, a sign of preeclampsia in pregnancy. Preeclampsia can lead to serious complications for both the mother and the baby, such as eclampsia and fetal growth restriction. The nurse should further assess the client's blood pressure, perform additional tests for preeclampsia, and closely monitor the client's condition.
Choice A: Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are within normal range for pregnancy and do not require immediate intervention.
Choice B: Blood pressure of 130/80 is slightly elevated but not concerning at this gestational age. Close monitoring is recommended.
Choice C: Slight pedal swelling is common in pregnancy due to fluid retention and usually does not indicate a serious issue.
A client who is 30 weeks pregnant comes into the labor and delivery unit complaining of having a gush of fluid come from her vagina. Which complication is this client at risk for?
- A. Infection
- B. Fluid volume deficit
- C. Hypotension
- D. Decreased urinary output
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluid volume deficit. When a pregnant client at 30 weeks experiences a gush of fluid from the vagina, it may indicate ruptured membranes leading to amniotic fluid leakage. This can lead to a decrease in amniotic fluid volume, potentially causing fluid volume deficit for both the mother and the fetus. This can result in complications such as preterm labor, infection, and fetal distress. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: Infection is a potential risk due to the ruptured membranes, but the immediate concern is fluid volume deficit.
C: Hypotension is not directly related to the scenario described.
D: Decreased urinary output is not a typical immediate concern with ruptured membranes; rather, the focus should be on assessing for signs of fluid loss and ensuring hydration.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 32 weeks gestation who comes to the emergency department for painful bleeding. Which is the priority nursing assessment?
- A. Monitor for contractions
- B. Assess pain level
- C. Assess for hemorrhage
- D. Provide emotional support
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assess for hemorrhage. This is the priority assessment as the client is experiencing painful bleeding, indicating a potential hemorrhage which can be life-threatening. Assessing for hemorrhage will help identify the severity of the situation and guide immediate interventions. Monitoring for contractions (choice A) is important but assessing for hemorrhage takes precedence. Assessing pain level (choice B) is important but addressing the potential hemorrhage is more critical. Providing emotional support (choice D) is important but should come after addressing the urgent medical need of assessing for hemorrhage.