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According to the standard staging classification for breast cancer, which criteria reflects stage 2 breast cancer?
- A. Tumor smaller than 2 cm, no regional lymph node metastasis, no distant metastasis
- B. No evidence of tumor; metastasis to lymph nodes fixed to one another or to other structure but no distant metastasis
- C. Tumor larger than 5 cm; metastasis to lymph nodes fixed to one another or to other structure; no distant metastasis
- D. Tumor larger than 2 to 5 cm; no regional lymph node metastasis; no distant metastasis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it aligns with the criteria for stage 2 breast cancer in the standard staging classification. In stage 2, the tumor is typically larger than 2 cm but not larger than 5 cm, there is no regional lymph node metastasis, and there are no distant metastases. Option A is incorrect because the tumor size is smaller than 2 cm, which does not meet the criteria for stage 2. Option B is incorrect as it describes no evidence of tumor with lymph node metastasis, which does not represent stage 2. Option C is incorrect as the tumor size is larger than 5 cm, exceeding the criteria for stage 2.
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Which is a constellation of physical and psychological symptoms beginning in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle and followed by a symptom-free period?
- A. Endometriosis
- B. Abnormal uterine bleeding
- C. Premenstrual syndrome
- D. Depression
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) occurs in the luteal phase due to hormonal changes.
2. PMS includes physical and psychological symptoms.
3. It is followed by a symptom-free period (during menstruation).
4. Endometriosis is a separate condition involving tissue growth outside the uterus.
5. Abnormal uterine bleeding refers to irregular bleeding patterns.
6. Depression is a mental health condition not specific to the menstrual cycle.
Summary:
PMS is the correct answer as it aligns with the timing, symptoms, and pattern described in the question. Endometriosis, abnormal uterine bleeding, and depression do not fully match the criteria provided.
A client with mild preeclampsia who has been advised to be on bed rest at home asks why doing so is necessary. Which of the following is the best response for the nurse to give the client?
- A. "Bed rest will help you to conserve energy for your labor."'
- B. "Bed rest will help to relieve your nausea and anorexia."'
- C. "Reclining will increase the amount of oxygen that your baby gets."'
- D. "The position change will prevent the placenta from separating."'
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because reclining will help improve blood flow to the placenta, increasing oxygen delivery to the baby. This is crucial in preeclampsia to prevent complications such as fetal growth restriction.
A: Incorrect. Bed rest in preeclampsia is not primarily for energy conservation but to reduce blood pressure and prevent further complications.
B: Incorrect. Bed rest does not directly address nausea and anorexia associated with preeclampsia; it focuses on maternal and fetal well-being.
D: Incorrect. Position change does not directly prevent placental separation in preeclampsia; it is more related to maintaining adequate blood flow to the placenta.
A nurse is teaching a community health class of women and explains that an STI is associated with an increased risk of infertility in women. Which STIs should the nurse identify?
- A. HSV-2
- B. Syphilis
- C. Chlamydia
- D. HPV
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Chlamydia. Chlamydia is associated with an increased risk of infertility in women due to its ability to cause pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), which can lead to scarring and damage to the reproductive organs. This scarring can result in blocked fallopian tubes, making it difficult for an egg to be fertilized by sperm. HSV-2 (Choice A) is a viral infection that primarily causes genital herpes but is not directly linked to infertility. Syphilis (Choice B) can lead to serious complications but infertility is not a common outcome. HPV (Choice D) is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause genital warts and cervical cancer, but it does not typically lead to infertility in women.
A client who has been diagnosed with HIV develops an oral candida infection. When teaching the client, which instructions will the health care provider include?
- A. Rinse your mouth often with a commercial mouthwash.
- B. Include plenty of citrus juices in your diet.
- C. Select foods that are soft or pureed.
- D. Include hot soups and beverages with each meal.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Select foods that are soft or pureed. This is because soft or pureed foods are easier to swallow and less likely to irritate the oral mucosa affected by the candida infection. Rinsing with a commercial mouthwash (choice A) may temporarily relieve symptoms but won't address the root cause. Citrus juices (choice B) can be irritating to the oral mucosa. Hot soups and beverages (choice D) can worsen the discomfort in the mouth. Overall, choosing soft or pureed foods will help alleviate discomfort and promote healing.
The test used to screen for gestational diabetes is the:
- A. Glycosylated hemoglobin test.
- B. Glucose challenge test.
- C. Oral glucose tolerance test.
- D. Postprandial glucose test.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glucose challenge test. This test is used to screen for gestational diabetes as it involves drinking a glucose solution and measuring blood sugar levels afterward. This test is specifically designed to assess how well the body processes sugar during pregnancy. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: Glycosylated hemoglobin test measures average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months and is not specific for gestational diabetes.
C: Oral glucose tolerance test is used to diagnose gestational diabetes, not to screen for it.
D: Postprandial glucose test measures blood sugar levels after a meal and is not the recommended screening test for gestational diabetes.