Nokea
A client with genital warts is receiving treatment with a local application of trichloroacetic acid. Which client statement indicates adequate understanding of the procedure?
- A. One or two treatments should get rid of the warts.
- B. I'm temporarily not contagious once the warts are destroyed.
- C. Once the warts are gone, then I know I'm cured.
- D. My partner doesn't need to be treated.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Genital warts when treated chemically will most likely be eradicated after three to six cycles of treatment. Eradication does not mean the condition is cured; the person is temporarily noncontagious once the warts are destroyed. All sexual contacts of the client need to be examined and treated.
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The nurse is completing a community education via a pamphlet on sexually transmitted diseases. Which key point is most important for the nurse to emphasize?
- A. Common age-groups for clients with sexually transmitted diseases are in their late teens and 20s.
- B. Many people are asymptomatic and show no symptoms contributing to the spread of the disease.
- C. Some sexually transmitted diseases can cause infertility caused by scarring of reproductive organs.
- D. Some sexually transmitted diseases can be transmitted to newborns through the birth canal.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse is most correct to emphasize information regarding prevention of sexually transmitted diseases. The information that many people are asymptomatic and show no symptoms is an important point to stress. Common age-groups are an interesting fact. Repercussions of the disease are also important to highlight; however, prevention is most important.
A client with primary syphilis is allergic to penicillin. The nurse would expect the physician to order which agent?
- A. Acyclovir
- B. Ceftriaxone
- C. Podophyllum resin
- D. Tetracycline
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clients who are allergic to penicillin are given a 14-day regimen of tetracycline or doxycycline. Acyclovir is used to treat genital herpes. Ceftriaxone may be used for gonorrhea. Podophyllum resin is used to treat genital warts.
Which type of sexually transmitted disease is the nurse most accurate to highlight in the client's history as it remains dormant in the body and can reoccur at any time?
- A. Chlamydia
- B. Herpes infection
- C. Gonorrhea
- D. Syphilis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse is most accurate to highlight the herpes infection as the virus can remain dormant in the ganglia of the nerves. Symptoms are usually more severe with the initial outbreak. Subsequent episodes are usually shorter and less intense. The other infections are important to note in the history.
The nurse is instructing an adolescent on ways to prevent sexually transmitted infections (STIs). When evaluating the options, which is best when the client states being sexually active?
- A. Having one sexual partner
- B. Abstinence
- C. Use a latex condom with a spermicide.
- D. Urinating after sexual intercourse
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse is most correct to instruct the sexually active client on the proper use of a latex condom. A latex condom with nonoxynol-9 is best to be used when having oral, vaginal, or anal intercourse. Having one sexual partner does not mean that the partner does not have a sexually transmitted infection. The client states being sexually active, thus, abstinence is not an option. Urinating after intercourse reduces the risk of an STI, however, providing a barrier between the partners is a better option.
A client requesting a chlamydia test asks why it is necessary to receive a test for gonorrhea and syphilis at the same time. Which response from the nurse is the correct explanation?
- A. The symptoms of these diseases are the same, and culture tests alone can determine the disease that has infected the client.
- B. The infecting bacterium in all cases is the same, and therefore, clients have concurrent infections.
- C. The infections spread through the same medium, and therefore, clients have concurrent infections.
- D. It is not unusual for clients to have concurrent infections with more than one sexually transmitted infection (STI).
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: It is common practice to test clients for chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphilis, and HIV because it is not unusual for clients to have concurrent infections with more than one STI. For chlamydia, the causative microorganism is a bacterium named Chlamydia trachomatis. For gonorrhea, the infection is caused by a bacterium named Neisseria gonorrhoeae. The spirochete Treponema pallidum is the causative microorganism of syphilis. The symptoms of these conditions are not identical. The causative microorganisms do not spread through the same medium.