Maternal Disorders

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The nurse is teaching a woman receiving adjuvant hormonal therapy on how she can manage her side effects and symptoms. Which education and teaching will the nurse include? Select all that apply.

  • A. Wear layered clothing and avoid caffeine and spicy foods to help relieve hot flashes
  • B. Decrease vaginal dryness by using vaginal moisturizers such as Replens or vitamin E suppositories daily
  • C. Manage nausea and vomiting by consuming a bland diet and taking medication first thing in the morning.
  • D. Ease musculoskeletal symptoms with warm baths and nonsteroidal analgesics
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Vaginal dryness is a common side effect of hormonal therapy. Using vaginal moisturizers like Replens or vitamin E suppositories can help alleviate this symptom by providing moisture and lubrication. This intervention can improve the woman's comfort and quality of life during treatment.

Choice A is incorrect because wearing layered clothing and avoiding caffeine and spicy foods are strategies typically recommended for managing hot flashes, not vaginal dryness.

Choice C is incorrect as managing nausea and vomiting with a bland diet and medication is not directly related to the management of side effects of hormonal therapy like vaginal dryness.

Choice D is incorrect as warm baths and nonsteroidal analgesics are more commonly used to ease musculoskeletal symptoms, not specifically for managing vaginal dryness.

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A client has an HSV-2 infection. The nurse recognizes that which of the following should be included in teaching the patient?

  • A. The virus causes cold sores of the lips.
  • B. Treatment is focused on relieving symptoms.
  • C. The virus is cured with antibiotics.
  • D. The virus is transmitted only when visible lesions are present.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because HSV-2 is a sexually transmitted infection that causes genital herpes. Treatment focuses on managing symptoms like antiviral medications, not curing the virus. Explanation of other choices: A is incorrect because HSV-2 causes genital sores, not cold sores on the lips. C is incorrect because antibiotics do not cure viral infections. D is incorrect because HSV-2 can be transmitted even when there are no visible lesions through asymptomatic shedding.

A nurse is performing a gynecological health history interview on a 17-year-old Caucasian adolescent. The girl appears anxious and states, 'I found a lump in my left breast, and I am worried that it may be cancer.' What factors should the nurse be aware of prior to responding to this patient? Select all that apply.

  • A. Breast fibroadenomas are the most common breast tumor in women after puberty and between the ages of 15 and 30.
  • B. African American women tend to develop fibroadenomas more often and at an earlier age than Caucasian women.
  • C. Young women are at increased risk for breast cancer.
  • D. The cause of fibroadenoma is a cancerous condition.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because breast fibroadenomas are indeed the most common benign breast tumor in women after puberty, typically occurring between the ages of 15 and 30. The nurse should be aware of this fact when assessing the patient's concern about the lump. Fibroadenomas are non-cancerous and do not increase the risk of breast cancer.

Choice B is incorrect because fibroadenomas are more common in Caucasian women, not African American women. Choice C is incorrect because young women like the patient are generally at low risk for breast cancer. Choice D is also incorrect because fibroadenomas are not caused by cancerous conditions.

The client calls the nurse and states she has not had a menstrual cycle in 3 months. What does the nurse know is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?

  • A. Weight loss
  • B. Pregnancy
  • C. Cancer
  • D. Menopause
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pregnancy. In the case of secondary amenorrhea, where a woman stops menstruating after previously having regular cycles, pregnancy is the most common cause. Pregnancy leads to a halt in the menstrual cycle due to hormonal changes to support the developing fetus. Other choices are incorrect: A) Weight loss can affect menstruation but is not the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea. C) Cancer can also disrupt the menstrual cycle, but it is not the primary cause in this scenario. D) Menopause typically occurs in women in their late 40s to early 50s, and would not be the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea in a younger woman.

A male client is being seen by a physician at a community clinic regarding a painless ulcer on his penis. The provider will be communicating his diagnosis of syphilis and prescribing treatment. In the primary stage of syphilis, what is the time between infection and development of symptoms?

  • A. 7 days
  • B. 10 days
  • C. 21 days
  • D. 35 days
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 21 days. The primary stage of syphilis typically occurs around 21 days after infection when a painless ulcer, known as a chancre, appears at the site of infection. This is due to the multiplication of the bacterium Treponema pallidum. Choice A (7 days) is too short for the development of symptoms. Choice B (10 days) is also too short. Choice D (35 days) is too long for the primary stage of syphilis.

A client comes to an outpatient clinic for evaluation. What in the client's blood sample reveals that administration of the hepatitis B vaccine has been effective?

  • A. Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)
  • B. anti-HBs
  • C. anti-HBc IgM
  • D. anti-HBc
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: anti-HBs. This antibody indicates successful immunity after hepatitis B vaccination. It is produced in response to the vaccine and signifies protection against the virus. Choice A, HBsAg, is present in acute infection. Choices C and D, anti-HBc IgM and anti-HBc, indicate acute or chronic infection, not vaccine response.

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