Nokea
For HIV treatment, the pregnant woman should be expected to receive:
- A. Antibiotics
- B. Protease analogues
- C. Zidovudine
- D. Acyclovir
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Zidovudine (AZT) is recommended for HIV-infected pregnant women to reduce the risk of vertical transmission to the baby.
2. It inhibits viral replication and decreases viral load in the mother, reducing transmission to the fetus.
3. Antibiotics are not effective for HIV treatment. Protease analogues are not typically used in pregnancy due to safety concerns. Acyclovir is used for herpes simplex virus, not HIV.
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A nurse is performing a gynecological health history interview on a 17-year-old Caucasian adolescent. The girl appears anxious and states, 'I found a lump in my left breast, and I am worried that it may be cancer.' What factors should the nurse be aware of prior to responding to this patient? Select all that apply.
- A. Breast fibroadenomas are the most common breast tumor in women after puberty and between the ages of 15 and 30.
- B. African American women tend to develop fibroadenomas more often and at an earlier age than Caucasian women.
- C. Young women are at increased risk for breast cancer.
- D. The cause of fibroadenoma is a cancerous condition.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because breast fibroadenomas are indeed the most common benign breast tumor in women after puberty, typically occurring between the ages of 15 and 30. The nurse should be aware of this fact when assessing the patient's concern about the lump. Fibroadenomas are non-cancerous and do not increase the risk of breast cancer.
Choice B is incorrect because fibroadenomas are more common in Caucasian women, not African American women. Choice C is incorrect because young women like the patient are generally at low risk for breast cancer. Choice D is also incorrect because fibroadenomas are not caused by cancerous conditions.
A male client is being seen by a physician at a community clinic regarding a painless ulcer on his penis. The provider will be communicating his diagnosis of syphilis and prescribing treatment. In the primary stage of syphilis, what is the time between infection and development of symptoms?
- A. 7 days
- B. 10 days
- C. 21 days
- D. 35 days
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 21 days. The primary stage of syphilis typically occurs around 21 days after infection when a painless ulcer, known as a chancre, appears at the site of infection. This is due to the multiplication of the bacterium Treponema pallidum. Choice A (7 days) is too short for the development of symptoms. Choice B (10 days) is also too short. Choice D (35 days) is too long for the primary stage of syphilis.
A woman has been diagnosed with single intraductal papilloma and has nipple discharge. Which diagnostic tests will most likely be required?
- A. MRI
- B. Mammogram
- C. Core needle biopsy
- D. Ductogram
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ductogram. In a patient with single intraductal papilloma and nipple discharge, a ductogram is the most appropriate diagnostic test to visualize the ductal system for any abnormalities. A ductogram involves injecting contrast dye into the affected duct to identify any blockages or abnormalities. This test helps in determining the extent of the papilloma and planning appropriate treatment.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
A: MRI - While MRI can provide detailed images, it is not the primary test for evaluating intraductal papilloma and nipple discharge.
B: Mammogram - Mammogram is used for breast imaging but may not provide detailed visualization of the ductal system.
C: Core needle biopsy - While a biopsy may be needed to confirm the papilloma, it does not directly assess the ductal system for other abnormalities.
A client has an HSV-2 infection. The nurse recognizes that which of the following should be included in teaching the patient?
- A. The virus causes cold sores of the lips.
- B. Treatment is focused on relieving symptoms.
- C. The virus is cured with antibiotics.
- D. The virus is transmitted only when visible lesions are present.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because HSV-2 is a sexually transmitted infection that causes genital herpes. Treatment focuses on managing symptoms like antiviral medications, not curing the virus. Explanation of other choices: A is incorrect because HSV-2 causes genital sores, not cold sores on the lips. C is incorrect because antibiotics do not cure viral infections. D is incorrect because HSV-2 can be transmitted even when there are no visible lesions through asymptomatic shedding.
The nurse is preparing a 51-year-old client for a vaginal examination. The nurse should place the client in which position?
- A. Prone
- B. Lateral Sims’
- C. Lithotomy
- D. High Fowler’s
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lithotomy position. This position allows for optimal visualization of the vaginal area and easier access for the examination. The client lies on their back with knees flexed and feet in stirrups, providing proper exposure. Prone (A) is face down and not suitable for a vaginal exam. Lateral Sims' (B) is on the side and not ideal for this exam. High Fowler's (D) is sitting upright, which is not appropriate for a vaginal examination.